March 31, 2012

Why Windows 8 touch sorta stinks in the Consumer Preview edition

Existing hardware wasn't built to rigorous Microsoft standards for the new operating system.

If you've been less than impressed with the performance of the touch interface for Windows 8 Consumer Preview it may be because the hardware running it wasn't designed for the new operating system, Microsoft says.

The eight screen-touch interactions defined for Windows 8 call for screens whose sensitivity may vary from what Microsoft requires of manufacturers who are building machines for Windows 8 specifically, according to the Building Windows 8 blog.

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"[W]hile we ensure that the OS works well with a Windows 7 PC, a new Windows 8 PC is going to be much more consistent and predictable both from a user and developer perspective," say the authors of the blog, Jerry Koh, a group program manager, and Jeff Piira, a test manager of the Windows human interaction platform team.

When the software is finalized and installed on devices that were designed specifically to support it the experience should be better, they say, and that is the top priority. In the meantime Microsoft has tried to make Windows 8 compatible with machines designed for Windows 7. "So you should feel confidence in installing the Consumer Preview on the machines that you own today," they write. "However, as much as we value compatibility, we also have to balance this with making Windows 8 really shine on new Windows 8 PCs."

As an example, they point to the edge-swipe feature that reveals application bars from the bottom of the screen and the charm bar from the right side. "Traditionally, the edges of the screen are where touch sensitivity drops off, and it's a place that hardware manufacturers have traditionally not placed much emphasis on," they write. So on Windows 8 machines, those edges will be made more responsive without sacrificing space that the application can use when the bars are hidden.

Since Windows 7 machines had different design requirements, Microsoft had to do a workaround for screens that are not ideal. "In order to make edge swipe work consistently on Windows 7 PCs, we created a mode where there is a 20-pixel buffer to catch the edge swipe gesture. This allows a majority of PCs to reliably invoke the charms and use Windows 8 effectively," the blog says.

As it says, this may work on a majority of machines, but not flawlessly. On a brand new HP TouchSmart 520 PC tested by Network World, the preview edition sometimes responds the first time with a finger swipe from the left to open up the charm bar, but sometimes it takes two or three swipes. Sometimes it misinterprets the edge swipe for a slide-to-pan swipe which scrolls the screen side to side. So a swipe meant to summon charms can scroll the live-tile screen for the Windows Store, for example.

But Microsoft says it has straightened this out with hardware developers. "There were many challenges here," the blog says, "but we were able to deliver on the promise of Windows 8 PCs that have the ability to trigger the edge swipe without taking any pixels from applications, and with extremely good edge sensitivity using touch — a promise that benefits developers and users alike."

Other issues the blog acknowledges:

= Taps don't always work, especially when typing. This may be due to touch screen response rate and the number of touch points. Or it may be that the user is typing too fast, leaving more than two fingers on the screen at the same time.

= Trouble detecting swipe-to-select motions. This could be because some systems ignore the first few values of a touch, throwing off its interpretation of a swipe.

= Swipe-and-slide can be interpreted as a tap. Again, if the first values are ignored, the swipe is misinterpreted. Slower swiping and sliding can help.

= Swipe from edge doesn't always work. Similar causes to the previous two issues and the same solution: slower swiping.

In its Windows on Arm (WOA) devices, in which the hardware is wed to the software with tight restrictions, Microsoft is shooting for responsive touchscreens that will inevitably be compared to the performance of iPads, since many WOA devices will be tablets.

The bloggers list some of the machines on which Microsoft has been testing Windows 8: HP Elitebook 2760p convertible; ASUS EP121 tablet; Dell Inspiron Duo convertible; Lenovo x220t convertible; 3M M2256PW 22" display; Samsung Series 7 slate.

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March 28, 2012

How to Migrate from Windows XP to 7, Windows Server 2003 to 2008 R2


With Microsoft ending support for these old operating systems, now's the time to plan your transition to the latest versions

When it comes to adopting new operating systems and applications, common practice among system administrators is to delay adoption until the release of the first service pack. Admins found plenty of reasons to put off moving from Windows XP to Windows Vista, and then to Windows 7: The new operating systems demanded more capable hardware, the user interface changes required user training, and there were compatibility issues with legacy hardware and applications.

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Get ready for Windows 8 support headaches
These days, it's becoming difficult to find device drivers and applications compatible with Windows XP. More importantly, Microsoft has ended mainstream support for Windows XP, and extended support ends in 2014. New PCs come with Windows 7 by default, so admins must support both operating systems anyway. And with Microsoft widely expected to ship Windows 8 in October, can your business afford to be two or three OS generations behind? Unless you intend to set aside the first-service-pack rule, it's time to bite the bullet and move forward.

Server admins are even more conservative. In this case, Windows Server 2008 R2 requires 64-bit hardware, and the interface is just different enough to make them nervous. The latest server applications, however, are compatible only with the newer operating system. Microsoft ended mainstream support for Windows 2003 in 2010, and extended support ends in 2015.

Here are the top six decisions you'll need to make before embarking on a migration:

1. Should you install the 32-bit version or the 64-bit version?
At the desktop level, there are few advantages to installing the 64-bit version of Windows 7. The biggest reason to stick with the 32-bit version is that you might have difficulty finding 64-bit drivers for legacy hardware. And some applications don't function well in a 64-bit environment. Unless you're positive you won't need to support legacy hardware, or if you have specific needs that can be filled only by a 64-bit OS (addressing more than 3GB of RAM, for instance), you should set up most desktops with the 32-bit OS.

There is no 32-bit version of Windows 2008 R2. You can run 32-bit applications, but 32-bit support is not installed by default

2. Can you find compatible device drivers?
As we've already mentioned, you might have difficulty finding Windows 7 drivers for legacy hardware, ranging from old printers and scanners to specialized tools such as pointaof-sale devices that rely on legacy serial ports. In fact, any new PCs you acquire probably won't even be outfitted with parallel or serial ports. Make a list of these devices and decide whether you'll replace them or retain some Windows XP computers to continue running them.

3. Which applications will need upgrades?
You can run Office 2003 on Windows 7, but no one would recommend running Office 2010 on Windows XP. Make a list of the applications that will need to be updated and remember that users will need training on both the new operating system and the new applications.

On the server side, Exchange 2003 or 2007 will run on Windows Server 2003, but Exchange 2010 requires Windows 2008.The same is true for the latest versions of SharePoint, SQL Server, and most other server applications. To reduce the impact on the enterprise, you might want to install new servers along with the new server applications, and then migrate users and their data from the old server to the new.

4. Should you upgrade in place, or start fresh?
When upgrading desktop systems, you have two choices: Install the new OS in an existing system, or start fresh with new hardware. Windows 7's system requirements are beyond the capabilities of most PCs that came with Windows XP installed, so you might need to beef up the hardware to upgrade in place. The same is true of servers put in service when Windows Server 2003 was new.

Upgrading in place enables you to transfer user settings, application settings, and more from the old hardware to the new using the Windows migration tool or aftermarket tools. Most applications will have to be reinstalled, and you'll want to run Microsoft's Windows 7 compatibility tester to determine if any of the old applications will have problems running on the new OS.

5. Is virtual desktop infrastructure a viable alternative?
You can avoid acquiring new desktop hardware by deploying virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI). Set up a server application that runs virtual iterations of both Windows 7 and Windows XP desktops, and your users will use their existing Windows XP machines to access these environments. This will help them transition to Windows 7 while ensuring continued access to their familiar Windows XP desktops and legacy applications. VDI will require server and networking infrastructure that will likely offset the savings realized by retaining your old desktop hardware. In the long run, however, VDI will simplify desktop management, and your users will experience an easier transition.

6. Should you invest in migration tools?
Migration tools can ease the pain of a mass upgrade by transferring operating system settings, application settings, and even some applications and drivers from old systems to new ones. Users can spend dozens of hours setting up their applications just the way they like, updating dictionaries in word processors; recreating macros, templates, and forms; and so on. The cost of such tools could be offset by avoiding such productivity loss.

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March 27, 2012

70-659 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all
client computers Windows 7 Professional.
The company network consists of an internal LAN and a perimeter network. The two networks are
separated by an internal corporate firewall. An external corporate firewall connects the perimeter
network to the Internet.
The network includes virtual machines (VMs) running on host servers contained in both the
internal network and the perimeter network.
You have recently installed a server named Certkingdom-VMM1 on the internal network. Certkingdom-VMM1 runs
Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2 and will be used to manage
the virtual environment.
You are now in the process of deploying VMM agents on the host servers. You have configured
the port number for the VMM agents and configured the internal corporate firewall to allow
communications on the appropriate port number.
What else do you need to configure to ensure that the VMM agents can communicate with CertkingdomVMM1?

A. You need to configure the name of the VMM server (Certkingdom-VMM1).
B. You need to configure the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of a domain controller.
C. You need to configure the name of a SQL Server.
D. You need to configure an encryption key.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all
client computers Windows 7 Professional.
The company network consists of two subnets. The Development subnet is used by the
Development department. The Production subnet is used by all other company departments.
You install a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server named Certkingdom-VMHost1 in the Production
subnet. Certkingdom-VMHost1 contains two network interface cards named NIC1 and NIC2. You have
configured NIC1 as a management interface.
You want to configure Certkingdom-VMHost1 to host virtual machines on both the Production subnet and
the Development subnet.
How should you configure Certkingdom-VMHost1?

A. You should use VLAN tags for the VMs and configure NIC2 to use Trunk Mode.
B. You should assign NIC2 as an additional management interface.
C. You should configure both adapters to support jumbo frames.
D. You should configure NIC1 with an IP address in the Production subnet and configure NIC2
with an IP address in the Development subnet.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers in the network run Windows Server 2008 R2.
A server named Certkingdom-VMM1 runs Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008
R2 and is used to manage the company’s virtual environment.
The company includes a Development department. Users in the Development department use
their computers to develop and test software applications for use by other company departments and customers.
You install a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server named Certkingdom-VMTest1 in the Development
department. Certkingdom-VMTest1 will host virtual machines (VMs) for the Development department
users to use to test their applications.
You need to ensure that the VMs are completely isolated from production servers.
How can you ensure that the test VMs can communicate with each other while being isolated from
the host server and the rest of the network?

A. By configuring the VMs to connect to a Dedicated virtual network.
B. By configuring the VMs to connect to an Internal virtual network.
C. By configuring the VMs to connect to a Local virtual network.
D. By configuring the VMs to connect to a Private virtual network.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
You are configuring a virtual environment for the company. You have an iSCSI storage disk array
that will be used to store virtual machines (VMs).
You install a server named Certkingdom-Host1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2008 R2.
You need to configure Certkingdom-Host1 to store to VMs on the iSCSI disk array.
Which two of the following tools could you use?

A. You could use Disk Management.
B. You could use Diskpart.exe.
C. You could use iSCSICLI.exe.
D. You could use iSCSICPL.exe.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named Certkingdom.com.
The company network consists of an internal LAN and a perimeter network. To comply with
company security policy, servers located in the perimeter network are not members of the
Certkingdom.com domain.
A Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 server named Certkingdom-VMHost1 is located in the perimeter network.
You relocate Certkingdom-VMHost1 into the internal network. You now need to join Certkingdom-VMHost1 to the
Certkingdom.com AD DS domain.
How should you join Certkingdom-VMHost1 to the Certkingdom.com domain?

A. You should use the System Properties control panel applet.
B. You should use the Netsh command line utility.
C. You should use the Hyper-V configuration utility (hvconfig).
D. You should use the dcpromo utility.

Answer: D

Explanation:


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March 26, 2012

Windows 8 update: Dell thinks it can sell Windows 8 tablets

Plus IDC thinks PC sales rely on Win 8, other rumors

Dell thinks it can make a buck off Windows 8 tablets, despite the fact that it pretty much abandoned its Android tablets last year.

More: Windows 8's 8 top apps (so far)

More: Windows Server 8: Ten Features Managers Will Love
Dell's Chief Commercial Officer Steve Felice told Reuters this week that he thinks disaffection with iPads by corporate IT departments creates an opportunity to sell mobile devices that run on Windows - something they are familiar with.

"On the commercial side there are a lot of concerns about security, interoperability, systems and device management, and I think Dell is in the best position to meet those," Felice saiys.

In addition to taking a run at Windows 8 Dell may also fire up its Android tablets again, but that is to be seen. "We have a roadmap for tablets that we haven't announced yet," he says. "You'll see some announcements...for the back half of the year. We don't think that this market is closed off in any way."

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Butting heads with iPads
Two postings by Microsoft indicate that it's not only inevitable that tablets based on Windows 8 be compared to iPads, Microsoft is actually encouraging the comparison. First, the company supports a Web page that instructs Windows 8 developers how to reshape their iPad apps into Metro style apps, and points to a site that details how much they can get paid for those apps. It also touts certain Metro navigation and control features as being superior to those employed by Apple.

The second posting on the Building Windows 8 blog outlines the screen resolutions that Windows 8 tablets can support. It turns out the maximum screen resolution is higher than that for the new iPad and its famous Retina display. The post is about how to write Metro apps so they look good on any screen size with any resolution above minimum Windows 8 requirements, but it's hard to miss that the maximum resolution (291 ppi) is greater than the new iPad's (265).

PC market health relies on Windows 8
IDC reports that the growth of PC sales in 2011 were slow and that it will stay slow through midyear. It says there is some hope at the end of this year and the beginning of next for increased growth, but that will depend on Windows 8. "2012 and 2013 will bring significant changes for Microsoft and the PC community," says IDC analyst Jay Chou. "Windows 8 and Ultrabooks are a definitive step in the right direction to recapturing the relevance of the PC, but its promise of meshing a tablet experience with a PC body will likely entail a period of trial and error, thus the market will likely see modest growth in the near term." That's a lot of pressure on Windows 8, which clearly has been tuned for touchscreen tablets. Microsoft may be trying to help out the PC market by its persistent use of the term PC for things that are clearly not PCs. For example, it refers to its Windows on ARM devices - mainly tablets - as WOA PCs.

Windows 8 due out in October
This old general consensus earned new headlines this week when Bloomberg reported that anonymous sources confirmed October as the launch month. In addition to pointing up the hysteria surrounding the pending release, the story also served to put forth some detail about what Windows 8 devices will be ready to roll on launch day. The same unnamed sources say three ARM tablets and more than 40 X86 machines will be ready to go with the debut.

Fixing Windows 8 still broken
The visceral rantings of a former Microsoft employee struggling to come to grips with Windows 8 were abruptly ended about a week ago when his fixingwindows8.com site went blank. So did his Twitter account, according to Network World blogger Andy Patrizio. He wonders if Microsoft might have been behind shutting down the site and its mostly negative posts about the frustrations of learning the new operating system. Microsoft wouldn't comment.

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March 25, 2012

HP0-242 Q&A /Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Script-based tests ____.

A. are installed during the Library & Tape Tools installation process
B. provide access to generic SCSI operations
C. are provided by HP for download from the web
D. can be altered by the user

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
Use the multiple exhibits provided to collect the necessary information to answer the question.
Which devices connected to a Network Storage Router are mapped to host CPQPR1850A?








A. all devices
B. no devices
C. changer connected on module 3 bus 1 SCSI ID 1; tape connected on module 3 bus 1 SCSI ID
2; tape connected on module 3 bus 1 SCSI ID 3
D. changer connected on module 3 bus 0 SCSI ID 1; tape connected on module 3 bus 0 SCSI ID

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
The Interface Manager card in an ESL library connects to the Fibre Channel Interface Controllers
across a ____.

A. serial cable
B. PCI bus
C. multimode Fibre Channel cable
D. private Ethernet cable

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What is the correct procedure to capture a user-defined diagnostic routine within Tapelib?

A. Select Start Capture in the System Tests Menu, enter the filename for the capture file, run the
desired tests, and select End Capture in the System Tests Menu.
B. Select Start Capture in the User Tests Menu, enter the filename for the capture file, run the
desired tests, and press End Capture in the Users Tests Menu.
C. Press TAB+C to enter capture mode, enter a filename in the displayed pop up window, run the
desired tests, and press TAB+E to end capture mode.
D. Press Alt+C to start capture mode, enter a filename in the displayed pop up window, run the
desired tests, and press Alt+E to end capture mode.

Answer: D


QUESTION 5
What is the maximum distance allowed between an ESL tape library with an NSR E2400-160 and
a 2 Gb Fibre Channel switch?

A. 300m
B. 500m
C. 100m
D. 10Km

Answer: A


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March 24, 2012

70-595 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
You are employed as a developer at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com makes use of BizTalk Server 2010 in
their environment.
You have designed a BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution for processing XML messages. You
then configured the solution to makes use of a solitary Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity
and BAM tracking profile to obtain content values from a message.
When a message is received, a portion of the values are bound to a receive port. When a
message is sent, the rest of the values are bound to a send port.
You have been instructed to make sure that a single record that includes all content values is
created for each message.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider making use of the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to
redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. You should consider linking a complete value to ActivityID field.
C. You should consider adding a relationship to the BAM tracking profile.
D. You should consider configuring the solution to make use of another Business Activity
Monitoring (BAM) activity.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
You are employed as a developer at Certkingdom.com. You are currently in the process of designing a
BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration for Certkingdom.com’s environment.
You have already created and saved a policy, named CertkingdomEmployeeBonus, to compute an
employee’s bonus based on year-to-date sales via the Business Rule Composer. You have also
included a Call Rules shape in the new BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration.
When you access the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, you are unable to find CertkingdomEmployeeBonus
in the menu of accessible policies.
It is imperative that CertkingdomEmployeeBonus is made available.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider publish CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the BizTalk Orchestration Designer.
B. You should consider publish CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the Business Rules Composer.
C. You should consider creating and publishing a vocabulary containing a definition that
references the XML schema used to evaluate CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the Business Rules Composer.
D. You should consider creating and publishing a vocabulary containing a definition that
references the XML schema used to evaluate CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the BizTalk Orchestration Designer.

Answer: B
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa995582(v=BTS.70).aspx


QUESTION 3
You are employed as an administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com is a shipping company that uses
radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on
BizTalk Server 2010 to track shipped containers.
Subsequent to defining a custom tag event, named ContainerArrivalEvent, you include the
SqlServerSink component to the RFID process using the RFID manager.
You are required to make sure that only the custom tag event is logged.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should make use of the Inline XSLT script type.
B. You should make use of the fully qualified assembly name for the EventType property.
C. You should make use of the Inline C# script type.
D. You should make use of the Generic EventType property.

Answer: D
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd352454(v=BTS.70).aspx


QUESTION 4
You are employed as an administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has a BizTalk Server 2010
environment.
Certkingdom.com has three trading partners to which EDI purchase orders are regularly sent. Certkingdom.com’s
trading partners make use of email, instead of through response messages, to confirm purchase
order acknowledgements. Furthermore, Certkingdom.com’s three trading partners employ identical
versions of the purchase order message. The only difference is that the product types for each
trading partner are defined by custom codes, which are not included in the standard BizTalk
purchase order schemas.
You have been instructed to make sure that a purchase order schema is used for each trading
partner when sending purchase orders. Each purchase order schema should contain the required
custom product type codes for that particular trading partner.
Which two of the following actions should you take? (

A. You should consider defining a local host setting for each of the three trading partners via the
transaction set settings for the party.
B. You should consider defining an envelope for each of the three trading partners via the
transaction set settings for the party.
C. You should consider making use of the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI
messages.
D. You should consider defining a custom namespace for each BizTalk schema.

Answer: B,C
Reference:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff629750(v=BTS.70).aspx


QUESTION 5
You work as a BizTalk Server 2010 administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com makes use of a BizTalk
Server 2010 orchestration that calls a Business Rules Engine policy.
You have previously configured the policy to assess test scores for passes or fails. You then
deployed The BizTalk solution, as well as the policy.
When Certkingdom.com decides to increase the value of a passing score, you are instructed to make the
necessary changes to the policy so that the adjusted rule parameter is displayed.
Which of the following actions should you take? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You should create a new version of the policy in the Business Rules Composer
B. You should create a different policy with a new name that includes the changed parameter in
the Business Rules Composer.
C. You should create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer.
D. You should create a new version of the policy in the Business Rules Composer
E. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary
F. You should edit this version to reflect the changed parameter.
G. You should deploy the new version.
H. You should publish the new version.
I. You should publish the vocabulary.
J. You should deploy the new policy.

Answer: C,E,I
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa560288(v=BTS.70).aspx


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March 23, 2012

Software licensing drags innovation

Often, we think that the primary obstacles to innovation are technological. Can we run the right analytics on this data? Will we be able to maintain service performance given the potential scale of our peak workload? What do we have to do to make this system more secure?

But nothing happens without money. And, when it comes to software, monetary requirements are largely dictated by vendor licensing.

Unfortunately, software vendors are struggling to keep up with the reality of the New IT, especially when it comes to virtualization and the cloud.

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Virtualization presents new licensing challenges, because it changes the way IT organizations utilize machines and processor cores. So it has rendered conventional models of utilization for a given instance of a piece of software obsolete.

Some vendors have responded to this change by treating virtual machines somewhat like they once treated physical hosts. Other vendors continue to focus on the physical host-but place restrictions on how many VMs can reside on those hosts. Others still refuse to embrace the notion of virtualization in any meaningful way.

This fragmented licensing landscape is a real problem for IT. For one thing, licensing schemes that make it excessively expensive for IT to leverage virtualization have a chilling effect on data center evolution. For another, disparate licensing schemes add to already burdensome IT complexity. In addition, a large part of the challenge in predicting software costs is due to the consistent changing of licensing schemes in unpredictable ways and at unpredictable intervals by vendors.

Things get even trickier when IT starts to adopt private, public and hybrid clouds. If I have an enterprise license for my database, why should my cloud provider have to charge me for hosted instances of that database? Conversely, if I am paying for cores and/or VMs, how do I make sure I stay in compliance as I automatically and dynamically move workloads between my own data center and one or more cloud providers?

These are, of course, technological issues as well as monetary ones. To effectively govern software compliance across hybrid cloud environments, IT needs open, standardized protocols for exchanging information about entitlements and usage. These protocols will enable IT, software vendors and cloud providers to provide each other with the transparency and automation necessary to track compliance and make fact-based decisions about appropriate licensing fees.

But protocols alone won't do the trick. Software vendors, cloud providers and IT organizations also have to decide upon policies that will appropriately compensate developers for their IP without hampering IT's ability to take advantage of the tremendous innovation taking place in the delivery of digital infrastructure capacity. Until those policies are clarified, licensing will remain the land mine that keeps IT from striding as boldly into virtualization and the cloud as it ought to.

How are you handling software licensing as you move to the cloud? Have you run into any major problems or cost snafus? Feel free to share your experiences and solutions below.

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March 21, 2012

2 HotMobile papers that grabbed us: WalkSafe and SpinLoc

WalkSafe keeps pedestrians from walking into cars; SpinLoc lets you twirl to figure out where you are

The recent HotMobile conference in San Diego attracted dozens of top mobile technology researchers who presented papers on their latest findings. While we didn't attend the event, a couple of papers jumped out at us while browsing the agenda.

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Researchers from Dartmouth University's Mobile Sensing Group and the University of Bologna presented a paper titled "WalkSafe: A Pedestrian Safety App for Mobile Phone Users Who Walk and Talk While Crossing Roads." Their research resulted in a free app called WalkSafe that's been on the Android Market since last year and that "operates at the intersection of vision, learning and mobile computing."

ANDROID APPS: 10 best new ones for fun and, uh, work
The app exploits a mobile phone's back camera to detect approaching vehicles and alert the user, via vibration or sound, of the impending danger. It also uses the phone's accelerometer sensors. The researchers used machine learning algorithms to allow the phone to detect vehicles during active calls. Studies of the app have shown it delivers few false positives, though doesn't identify all oncoming vehicles.

The researchers acknowledge that other apps exist that allow users to text or email and walk by showing the road ahead as a background image, but cite findings that even with such an app phone users are probably too distracted to attend to their own safety. Other apps have been developed to initiate communications between cars and pedestrians, but the researchers say broad implementation would be very involved and "perhaps, unlikely."

Future research includes improving vehicle detection to include bicycles, motor bikes and more, as well as improving detection of vehicles at night, since that's when so many pedestrian accidents occur. Barbara Wang, one of the Dartmouth researchers who is now at Google, says there are no plans to extend the app beyond Android anytime soon.
A fresh spin on wireless localization

Another research paper that caught our eyes was "SpinLoc: Spin Once to Know Your Location," from researchers at Duke University and the University of South Carolina. The researchers say that while location-based apps have exploded of late, most don't involve indoor localization, which could be used, for example, to orient yourself in a shopping mall or big engineering building on a college campus.

Souvik Sen from Duke describes the research as being about indoor localization using existing Wi-Fi deployments. "The technique requires no painful war driving, but requires the user to spin around once to find her location. As the user spins, we find that her body blocks the incoming WiFi signal. The dip in signal strength is the highest when her body is exactly between the access point and her phone. Thus by finding the minimum signal strength and using the corresponding phone compass value, it is possible to find the direction of the AP from her phone. If we can hear multiple APs (a very general setting), we can triangulate with these directions, and find the user's location. Preliminary work shows a localization accuracy of 5 meters, and we are hoping to reduce that in our future work."

Who knows, maybe WalkSafe and SpinLoc will need to be combined some day to keep people from twirling into oncoming shopping carts.

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March 19, 2012

642-165 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?

A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route
Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?

A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified
Communications? (Choose two.)

A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option

Answer: A,C

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified
CM Telephony group?

A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?

A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center

Answer: B

Explanation:


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March 17, 2012

First look at Firefox 11 browser

No earth-shaking changes, but Mozilla’s minor Firefox upgrades could add up

Firefox 11 packs multiple new features
The latest incarnation of Mozilla’s Firefox browser introduces a host of evolutionary upgrades, though it’s relatively light on truly groundbreaking improvements. Nevertheless, there are some key features in Firefox 11 that could help it retake the number two spot in the market from Google Chrome.

Syncing up
Firefox has long advertised its wide variety of available add-ons. Now, the browser’s new Sync feature allows an increasingly mobile user base to synchronize these added features across both the desktop and smartphone versions of the product.

Chrome browser import
In one of several new features apparently aimed at undercutting Chrome’s perceived advantages, Firefox 11 provides users with the option of importing cookies, bookmarks and history data from the Google browser.

Getting SPDY
Google’s web transport protocol, known as SPDY, can now be used in Firefox 11. While it’s not enabled by default, the system can offer dramatically increased browsing performance.

HTML5
Mozilla has improved support for the new web content standard in Firefox 11, updating its media controls for HTML5 video, supporting the outerHTML property on HTML elements and incorporating a new HTML5 parser for source syntax highlighting.

Under the hood
Additional tools for web developers are also a part of Firefox 11. The “Tilt” 3D visualization add-on and a free-form style sheet editor provide new possibilities.

HTML parsing support for XML requests
The addition of the option to parse HTML information using the XMLhttpRequest offers new flexibility for web application designers.

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March 15, 2012

HTC lists smartphones that will get Android 4.0

The Sensation and Sensation XE will be the first HTC phones to get the Ice Cream Sandwich upgrade

IDG News Service - HTC is preparing an Android 4.0 upgrade for 16 of its existing smartphones, but the company still has few details on when users will get the upgrade, according to a blog posted on Tuesday.

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The company is in the early stages of rolling out Android 4.0 for the Sensation and Sensation XE, and upgrades will be more widely available in the next few weeks. The update for the Sensation 4G and Sensation XL will then follow, the blog post said.

HTC is working with carriers to schedule updates for the other smartphones, it said.

Besides the Sensation family, the other phones that will eventually get the upgrade are the Droid Incredible 2, Amaze 4G, Desire S, Desire HD, EVO 3D, EVO Design 4G, Incredible S, Raider, Rezound, Rhyme, Thunderbolt and Vivid.

Google launched Android 4.0, also known as Ice Cream Sandwich, with the intention of lessening fragmentation in the Android market, and five months after launch it is starting to take off with upgrades of existing phones as well as new products running it.

On Tuesday, Samsung Electronics said that it has started upgrading its Galaxy S II phone. The company also manufactures the first phone to run Android 4.0, the Galaxy Nexus.

Besides planning to upgrade existing products, HTC has also announced a number of new products that will use the latest version of Google's operating system, including the One X, which has a quad-core processor and a 4.7-inch HD screen.

March 14, 2012

ST0-91X Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
An administrator attempts to use the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface to restore the
server's data. Upon selecting the client name and policy type, the administrator notices that
restore points are unavailable. The backup jobs have been completed successfully. What should
the administrator do first to troubleshoot this issue?

A. verify the tape media is available in the tape library
B. verify the backup image has yet to expire
C. verify the restore policy is enabled
D. verify the date and time are set correctly on the media server

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about duplication in Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)

A. Duplications may be performed without usingNetBackup Vault.
B. In any multiple media server environment, the source and destination media must reside on the
same media server.
C. An entire tape is copied block by block from source to destination.
D. Unexpired images can be duplicated from source to destination.
E. Due to formatting concerns, tape drives used in the duplication must be of the same media
type.

Answer: A,D


QUESTION 3
An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal
window and needs to configure robots and drives. Which command should be used to complete
the configuration?

A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report?(Select two.)

A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using

Answer: A,D


QUESTION 5
Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?

A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA

Answer: C


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March 13, 2012

HP0-238 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Using the MSA1000 Software Support CD, which installation options do you have? Select TWO.

A. new firmware
B. Windows drivers
C. MSAFlash utility
D. Secure Path
E. ACU-XE

Answer: B,E


QUESTION 2
You have a configuration with 3 virtual disks configured in one array. One virtual disk is RAID 0,
one is RAID 5 and one is ADG. Identify the correct statements if one hard drive has failed and you
remove a wrong (running) drive from this array. Select TWO.

A. RAID 5 has data loss when you remove the wrong drive.
B. RAID 5 has data loss after first drive failure.
C. ADG is still online.
D. RAID 5 is still online.
E. ADG has data loss when you remove the wrong drive.

Answer: A,C


QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button.
On an MSA1000 disk, all LEDs are OFF. What are possible causes for the status and which
actions should you take? Select TWO.


A. The array is performing an online expansion. Do not remove this drive without verifying the
configuration.
B. The drive is not configured as part of an array. You can remove the drive.
C. The array is rebuilding. Do not remove this drive without verifying the configuration.
D. The drive is configured as a hot spare. If needed, you can remove the drive.
E. The drive is part of the selection of the array configuration utility. Do not remove this drive
without verifying the configuration.

Answer: B,D


QUESTION 4
Which cable can be used to connect an MSA1000 with I/O-module to a 1 Gb SAN switch?

A. LC to SC
B. SFF to SFP
C. SC to SC
D. LC to LC

Answer: A


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642-145 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
What is the best practice of configuring an intercom on a shared line?

A. This feature allows all endpoints to participate in intercom messages.
B. This feature can be used only when the intercomephonedn is configured as a dual line
C. This feature is not supported and should not be used
D. This feature can be supported only in a unidirectional manner.
E. This feature allows one endpoint to contact multiple endpoints simultaneously

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Using the show ccn trigger command provides the following output:cue1000#
show ccn trigger
Name: 6800Type: SIPApplication: voicemailLocale:en_US Idle Timeout: 5000Enabled: yes
Maximum number of sessions: 8Name: 6700Type: SIPApplication: autoattendant Locale:en_US
Idle Timeout: 5000Enabled: yes Maximum number of sessions: 8cue1000#
What two pieces of
information can you derive from this output? (Choose two.)

A. The number of ports available is 16
B. The operator can bereachedat extension6800
C. The voicemail pilot point number is 6800
D. The voicemail application is enabled.
E. The idle timeout is 5 seconds

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 3
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibit carefully. What type of calls
can the ephone with extension 2151 make?


Exhibit:


A. No impact on out going calls. However, in coming calls will not be permitted to extension
2151unless cor list is configured on the ephonedn
B. Only US calls
C. All calls
D. Internal and emergency calls only, because of the defaultcor restriction.
E. None

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibit carefully. A user at Acme
Co. reports that when some one leaves a voicemail message, their MWI does not light up. The
administrator has checked the MWI configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express and found that the MWI On number is 9001 and the MWI Off number is 9000. Using the
trace output from the Cisco Unity Express module, what is the problem?


Exhibit:


A. The MWI On number configuration is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express
B. The CCN subsystem SIP is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express.
C. The MWI Off Number configuration is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express
D. The SIP is misconfigured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
E. The MWI application is not enabled

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibits carefully. This proposed
configuration is meant to forward calls to extension 9999 when extension 2001is busy. Which
configuration command will most likely to be edited for this to function properly?
Exhibit #1:

Exhibit #2:


A. max registrations
B. id network mask
C. mailbox
D. voiceregisterpool

Answer: D


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SG1-001 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)

A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports

Answer: A,E

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits
result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)

A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)

A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position

Answer: A,B

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge
configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput
requirement of 40MB/s. Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?

A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration
needs to be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?

A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation.

Answer: B

Explanation:


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March 12, 2012

642-144 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine


QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drop

.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:



Explanation:



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QUESTION 2
Which two Tel scripts make up the B-ACD? (Choose two.)

A. Call Queue
B. Auto Attendant
C. Basic Queuing
D. Direct Inward Dial
E. Automated Queuing
F. Automated Call Distributor

Answer: A,B


QUESTION 3
The Clinton Howe Weights and Measures Company wants to send CDRs to a syslog server.
Which two options are required? (Choose two.)

A. The CDR collection must be enabled from the CLI.
B. The syslog server IP address must be configured using the logging command.
C. The CDRs must be sent to the syslog server using the gw-accounting syslog command.
D. The logging file must be initialized using the logging buffered command.

Answer: B,C


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Where would a Cisco Unity Express Network Module physically reside?


A. PC at headquarters
B. PC at the remote office
C. voice-enabled router at headquarters
D. Cisco Unified CallManager publisher at headquarters
E. Cisco Unified CallManager subscriber at headquarters
F. Cisco Unified CallManager Express router at the remote office

Answer: F


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The Hamilton Hair Emporium was having difficulty hearing during conference
calls. This configuration adjustment was made, and now the company is experiencing sound
distortion. What is the cause?


A. The gain functionality applies to outbound audio packets. Distortion is created when an external
participant causes echo.
B. The distortion is unrelated to the gain functionality. Rather, it is a result of the company trying to
maintain too many conference calls at one time.
C. This functionality cannot discriminate between a local VoIP source that requires volume gain
and a CO-powered PSTN source that does not require volume gain.
D. This functionality cannot discriminate between a remote VoIP or Foreign Exchange Office
source that requires volume gain, and a remote VoIP or IP phone that does not require volume
gain.

Answer: D


QUESTION 6
The network administrator at Silver Ball GeneralCom has downloaded the cme-gui-xxx.xx.tar file
("xxx.xx" represents the version number of the file) for Cisco Unified CallManager Express. Which
file will be extracted?

A. xml.template
B. normaljjserjs
C. music-on-hold.au
D. ATA03u1uuSCCP04u211A.zip

Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two of the following must be configured to allow users to blind transfer calls to both internal
and PSTN numbers using H.450.2 supplementary services? (Choose two.)

A. transfer-pattern .T
B. transfer-system full-blind
C. supplemental service h.450.2
D. allow-connections h323 to h323

Answer: A,B


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March 11, 2012

70-573 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
A site definition has been purchased from another company. It is used to created SharePoint sites.
Now there is a request to modify the home page for the site definition by adding a Web Part.
What actions need to be taken? Select two.

A. Add..
B. Uninstall..
C. Remove…
D. Modify..
E. Install…
F. ..the file CSTemplate.xsd
G. ..the file Onet.xml
H. ..a Feature receiver
I. ..a Feature dependcy
J. ..the file config.web
K. ..the file web.config

Answer: D,G

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
A customized Site Featured need to be made. There is customized site definition.
The Feature of this site definition must be activated for all additional sites which are created using
it.
What actions need to be taken? Select two.

A. Add..
B. Uninstall..
C. Remove…
D. Modify..
E. Install…
F. ..the file CSTemplate.xsd
G. ..the file Onet.xml
H. ..a Feature receiver
I. ..a Feature dependcy
J. ..the file config.web
K. ..the file web.config

Answer: D,G

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
There is third party site definition named CertKingdom.
A file named TemplateCertKingdom.xsd is included in CertKingdom.
TemplateCertKingdom.xsd contains configuration date.
There is a provision handler for CertKingdom.
The information in TemplateCertKingdom.xsd must be read.
The following property should be used.



Answer:




QUESTION 4
There is a specialized program to import data into SharePoint sites.
There is a specialized site definition named CertKingdom created by MS Visual Studio 2010.
The specialized program code must be run whenever a new site is created by using CertKingdom.
What should be done to ensure this? Select three.

A. Modify..
B. Add…
C. Delete…
D. ..file..
E. ..class..
F. ..feature..
G. .. CSTemplate.xsd
H. ..SPItemEventReceiver
I. .. Onet.xml
J. .. receiver
K. .. SPChangeFile
L. .. SPWebEventReceiver
M. .. dependcy
N. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider
O. ..config.web
P. .. web.config

Answer: B,E,N

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
There is a specialized Web Part named CertKingdomWebpart.
There must be a test to check if CertKingdomWebpart generates leaks in the RAM.
What should be done to ensure this? Select two.

A. Modify..
B. Add…
C. Run..
D. Delete…
E. .. WinDbg.exe
F. .. CSTemplate.xsd
G. ..SPItemEventReceiver
H. .. Onet.xml
I. .. SPDisposeCheck.exe
J. .. SPChangeFile
K. .. SPWebEventReceiver
L. .. SPMetal.exe
M. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider
N. ..config.web
O. .. web.config

Answer: C,I

Explanation:


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March 10, 2012

Google patches rare critical vulnerability in Chrome

Sandbox escape vulnerability disclosed at CanSecWest was patched in Chrome 17.0.963.78

Google has patched a critical Chrome vulnerability disclosed Wednesday at the CanSecWest security conference in Vancouver that can be exploited to escape from a browser's secure sandbox.

Russian security researcher Sergey Glazunov demonstrated a remote code-execution (RCE) exploit against a fully patched version of Chrome on Windows 7 as part of Google's Pwnium contest held at the conference.

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BACKGROUND: Contests hack the heck out of Chrome

Glazunov's exploit leveraged two Chrome vulnerabilities -- one that allows the execution of arbitrary code and one that bypasses the browser's much-touted security sandbox, which normally restricts such exploits.

Remote code-execution vulnerabilities, while very serious, are relatively common in all software products. However, the sandbox escape ones are extremely rare and, according to TippingPoint, which runs the separate Pwn2Own contest at CanSecWest, are worth much more than the US$60,000 Glazunov earned from Google for reporting it.

Both vulnerabilities leveraged by Glazunov's exploit were fixed in Google Chrome 17.0.963.78, which was released on Thursday.

"We had the first successful exploit at Pwnium yesterday, and today we've already rolling out an update to protect our users," said Sundar Pichai, Google's senior vice president for Chrome, on Thursday via his Google+ account. "The team took less than 24 hours from initial report to verification to fix development to getting a fix out."

Because of the Chrome's auto-update feature, users just need to restart their browsers in order to deploy the security fix. Organizations can deploy the important update by using the Google Update for enterprise policy.

Glazunov's was not the only Chrome sandbox escape exploit demoed at CanSecWest. A team of researchers from French security vendor VUPEN presented a similar attack as part of TippingPoint' Pwn2Own contest.

However, the Pwn2Own rules don't require researchers to disclose sandbox-escape vulnerabilities to vendors, primarily because the prize money wouldn't justify their disclosure. This means that there is still one highly critical Chrome vulnerability out there that remains unpatched.

The Chrome security team suspects that it's located in the Flash Player plug-in bundled with the browser by default and not in Chrome's own code. There is no confirmation from VUPEN regarding this theory, but if true, the task of patching the vulnerability would fall with Adobe Systems.

March 9, 2012

000-020 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
An organization has decided to deploy an IBM Tivoli Access Manager for Enterprise Single-on
solution to help address security and productivity issues. Per their corporate security policy, the
organization has detailed requirements related to password management for their enterprise
applications. Which password requirements need to be captured?

A. details related to application user ID requirements
B. policy requirements related to the number of applications that a user can access
C. policy requirements for application and user initiated password resets and password complexity
D. do nothing as password policy requirements are best addressed within the application space
rather than in an Enterprise Single Sign-On project

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which operator allows specification of a case-sensitive regular expression comparison for
attributes in an AccessProfile signature?

A. Tilde (~)
B. Hash (#)
C. Equals (=)
D. Asterisk (*)

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What are the directory details of Relational Database backup files created by IBM Tivoli Access
Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On V8.0.1 housekeeping?

A. The directory must exist with one subdirectory (general).
B. The directory must exist with two subdirectories (daily, weekly).
C. The directory must exist with three subdirectories (daily, weekly, monthly).
D. The directory must exist with four subdirectories (general, daily, weekly, monthly).

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
System, machine, and user policies can be configured though AccessAdmin. How are changes
synchronized with the AccessAgent?

A. written by the Administrators on the INI files
B. propagated only with the Active Directory network service
C. propagated to the clients on the next Administrator access
D. propagated to clients the next timeAccessAgent synchronizes with the IMS Server

Answer: D


QUESTION 5
An SSL VPN can be used in conjunction with IBM Tivoli Access Manager for Enterprise Single
Sign-On to provide remote access to business critical information. Which statement is true about
the Mobile ActiveCode (MAC) when it is used with a VPN Solution for remote access?

A. The MAC can only be delivered to a mobile phone and is good for a single use only.
B. The MAC can be delivered by mobile phone, e-mail, or fax, and it is good for one time
authentication only.
C. The MAC can only be delivered to a mobile phone and it is good until the expiration time is
reached, as set by an administrator.
D. The MAC can be delivered by mobile phone, email, or fax, and it is good until the expiration
time is reached, as set by an administrator.

Answer: B


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