C_S4FCF_2020 SAP Certified Application Associate - Central Finance in SAP S/4HANA Exam

 

Delivery Methods: Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 64%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

Description
The 'SAP Certified Application Associate - Central Finance in SAP S/4HANA (SAP S/4HANA 2020)' certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the fundamental and core knowledge required of the Central Finance profile. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification. It is recommended as verification the consultant is ready to contribute significantly to Central Finance implementation projects. It puts the consultant in a position to be onboarded to an implementation project quickly and to contribute to the project's success right away. This certificate is the ideal starting point for a career as a Central Finance consultant.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Initial Load in Central Finance > 12%
Describe how to set a filter for the initial load of Cost Object. Resolve errors of cost object initial load. Execute initial load of FI/CO postings. Resolve errors of FI/CO posting initial load. Set filter for the initial load of CO internal posting, and resolve errors of CO internal posting initial load. Define validation and reconciliation in Central Finance. Perform reconciliation reports in Central Finance.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

SAP Master Data Governance > 12%
Describe MDG central governance and mass processing. Describe the general concepts and capabilities of SAP MDG, central governance. Activate and configure the default processes for MDG. Define MDG data models.

S4F601 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
S4F60 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Real time Replication in Central Finance > 12%
Describe prerequisites to activate real time replication. Start real time replication. Correct errors of real time replication. Explain the document flow functionality of Central Finance. Perform document drill back from target system to source system.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Corporate Finance Processes supported by Central Finance 8% - 12%
Define centralization of finance operations. Describe intercompany reconciliation in Central Finance. Determine open item management in Central Finance. Configure central payments and central down payments. Describe AR/AP reporting in Central Finance. Define SAP Credit Management. Describe the integration of Credit Management with Central Finance and the relationship between Credit Management and Central Payments.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Central Finance Landscape Architecture 8% - 12%
Define options to SAP S/4HANA Central Finance Architecture links source systems to the central finance system. Design SLT techchnical integration platform for Central Finance. Describe MDG function in Central Finance for master harmonization. Descript AIF as interface and monitoring for Central Finance.

S4F60 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Central Finance Setup and Configuration 8% - 12%
Configure the scope for the initial load of FI/CO posting. Define decimal places for currencies. Differentiate between Key Mapping and Value Mapping. Define mapping actions for Mapping Entities. Define key mapping and value mappings. Configure Cost Object Mapping scenarios.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

System Landscape Transformation Server (SLT) 8% - 12%
Describe options for activating data replication and how to transfer data, including how to change structures to source tables during replication. Configure client specific and cross client replication. Describe starting recording and replication.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Integration Technology ALE < 8%
Differentiate Application Link Enabling (ALE) from Electronic Data Interchange (ED). Define logical system or logical system name, message type, and distribution model. Designdistribution model. Configure logical system names and assign them to clients in SAP systems.

S4F601 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Enhancements in the Controlling Area (CO-PA, WBS) < 8%
Explain improvements made when replicating from costing-based CO-PA into Profitability Analysis in the Universal Journal. Understand account-based CO-PA COGS split in Central Finance. Define account-based CO-PA price split in Central Finance. Describe the new replication scenario for internal EC-PCA postings. Explain the simulation tool for EC-PCA and the Profit Center comparison report. Describe how WBS elements and project structures can be transferred to Central Finance to enable a central reporting on projects.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Run Phase in Central Finance < 8%
Design the SAP S/4 HANA Central Finance project phases. Determine the SAP S/4HANA Central Finance pilot approach. Describe the required organizational change with SAP S/4HANA Central Finance. Determine the stakeholders involved in a Central Finance project. Define the change enablers and key success factors. Design the operation model for Central Finance, and daily operations that might be needed in Central Finance.

S4F60 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

System Integration Concepts < 8%
Describe technical communications modes and processes. Design the types of communication transfer modes. Explain business scenarios and the business hierarchy used by SAPConfigure RFC between two SAP systems, or non-SAP system.

S4F61 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)
S4F601 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.

SAP Global Certification FAQ - Overview
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Exam Process
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

QUESTION 1
Central finance feature will only support on-premise deployment. Is this statement correct?

A. No
B. Yes

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are running an SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence report that fetches data from an analytic view.
Which of the following four components is used by SAP HANA to provide data for this report?

A. OLAP engine
B. Delivery unit
C. SAP host agent
D. XS engine

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would you use to determine the engines that are used when an information model is queried? (Choose two.)

A. Explain plan
B. Visualize plan
C. SQL plan cache
D. Timeline

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which characteristics define extension ledgers in SAP S/4HANA? (Choose two.)

A. Extension ledgers can be posted from CO.
B. Extension ledgers must be assigned to a base ledger.
C. Extension ledgers contain all the postings for an accounting principle.
D. Extension ledgers should be viewed as standalone ledgers.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
When you use SLT replication, which of the following determines the name of the SAP HANA schema where replicated data is stored?

A. The name of the secondary database connection
B. The name of the RFC connection
C. The name of the source system schema
D. The name of the replication configuration

Correct Answer: D

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DEA-41T1 Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate Exam

 

Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate (DEA-41T1) Certification exam. This study guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for items on the DEA-41T1 Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate exam. The Sample Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual Dell EMC DCA-PowerEdge certification exam.

The Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate certification is mainly targeted to those candidates who want to build their career in PowerEdge domain. The Dell EMC Certified Associate - PowerEdge exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of Dell EMC DCA-PowerEdge.

Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate Exam Summary:
Exam Name Dell EMC Certified Associate - PowerEdge
Exam Code DEA-41T1
Exam Price $230 (USD)
Duration 90 mins
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 63%
Books / Training Dell EMC PowerEdge Server Concepts (SV_SYS_1122)
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate Sample Questions
Practice Exam Dell EMC DEA-41T1 Certification Practice Exam

Dell EMC DEA-41T1 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Introduction to Severs - Define the Server, identify the types of servers and their form factors
- Explain how various storage technologies are used in servers
- Explain in RAID concepts
- Explain the steps to set up a server
- Identify the types of Server Operating Systems and explain the installation procedure

Server Networking - Identify networking hardware and cables
- Explain the concept of IP Addressing
- Define various network services

Server Applications - Define several common server roles
- Identify and explain common Dell Technologies and Microsoft Windows tools for monitoring server hardware
- Explain the concept and benefits of server virtualization

Server Maintenance - Identify server components and their roles
- Identify and describe server management tasks and management tools
- Define Power supply of a server and configure it
- Explain the environment needed for servers and define server maintenance
- Explain common troubleshooting methods and tools for Dell EMC servers
- Explain server configuration management

Server Security - Describe best practices and methods of securing and performing backups
- Identify and describe best practices for performing data backups

To ensure success in Dell EMC DCA-PowerEdge certification exam, we recommend authorized training course, practice test and hands-on experience to prepare for Dell EMC PowerEdge Associate (DEA-41T1) exam.

QUESTION 1
An administrator is implementing LTO-5 drives in their backup solution.
They plan to disable hardware data compression through their backup appliance.
What is the maximum data rate that can be achieved?

A. 80 MB/s
B. 120 MB/s
C. 140 MB/s
D. 160 MB/s

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A server is experiencing issues with completing POST. The environment does not have a KVM or “Crash cart” available to view where the system is halting.
Which method can an administrator use to determine the first place to start troubleshooting?

A. Run OpenManage Essentials
B. Check rear lights on the server chassis
C. Run Repository manager
D. Check iDRAC Post Code

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What advantage do NVDIMMs have over other server-based memory technologies?

A. Operate at lower voltages to save on power costs.
B. Lower cost per GB of capacity
C. Require less cooling than traditional memory DIMMs
D. Can retain contents even after a power loss

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is an accurate statement in reference to software RAID?

A. Software RAID does not have any data integrity issues
B. Software RAID requires a hardware license
C. Software RAID is an additional cost
D. Software RAID uses CPU resources

Correct Answer: D

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Slack Certified Admin Exam

 

For Slack admins at organizations of all sizes, you're in the right place to learn and prove your skills.

Overview
If you have experience with Slack’s admin capabilities and what it takes to create an effective experience for your team, then becoming a ​Slack Certified Admin​ will let you put your skills to the test and share your credentials.

By getting certified, you’ll be able to show the world that you have knowledge of Slack’s features ​and​ how to use them to build a simpler, more pleasant and more productive experience for your team. Once you pass this exam, you will officially be a Slack Certified Admin for 18 months!

You'll be able to show off your credential to others in your organization or in the wider community of people managing and driving organizational change with Slack.

Qualifications
To be a Slack Certified Admin, you must demonstrate the knowledge and skills necessary to implement, configure and manage Slack. You should be comfortable recommending policies, settings, features and thought leadership for use cases on all paid Slack plans, including Standard, Plus and Enterprise Grid. We recommend that you have at least six to twelve months of real-world experience as a Slack admin as well as experience working in the admin console.

This program is designed to build skills and verify proficiency for Slack admins. We recommend that you already have a moderate level of familiarity with:
Admin roles
Slack architecture
User provisioning
Settings and policies
Channel structure
App approval processes
Data security
Process design
How to drive adoption for your team

For those with less experience, or for anyone who wants to build these skills in preparation for the exam, we recommend you take the Slack Certified Admin Prep Course. This course will help you gain the skills needed to pass the exam.

About the exam
Exam format: 60 Multiple choice questions
Time allotted: 90 Minutes
Passing score: 65%
Exam Registration fee: USD $150 (also available as a $300 package with the Slack Certified Admin Prep Course)
Exam delivery method: Online proctored
Prerequisites: While there are no prerequisites, we recommend that you take the Slack Certified Admin Prep Course to prepare for the exam.
Language: English

NOTE: To access the online prep course and the certification exam you will be required to submit payment. The above cost covers the registration fee, access to online training content for six months, access to the online prep course, the certification exam, plus one additional exam attempt if you fail the first time, and a digital credential once you successfully pass the exam.

QUESTION 1
Big Corp uses an IdP (Identity Provider) to manage access for its members to its Plus plan on Slack. Their security team wants to make sure members will be automatically deactivated when they leave the company.
Which of the following must be true to ensure that members are automatically deactivated?

A. Each member’s access must be set to expire after 90 days.
B. The member must not be a Workspace Admin or Owner.
C. The member who is leaving the company must have left all channels.
D. The IdP must support deprovisioning via SCIM.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What would be the expected behavior if a team member in Enterprise Grid is added to an IdP (Identity Provider) group with auto-provisioning enabled to a workspace?

A. The member would be automatically added to the new workspace and would be unable to leave.
B. The member would be notified that they have a new workspace that they can join and would be unable to dismiss it until they have joined the workspace.
C. There will be no changes to the member’s workspace list.
D. The member would be automatically added to the new workspace unless it is a hidden workspace.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements describes the effect of configuring mandatory Two Factor authentication (2FA) in Slack?

A. Members must have a sophisticated and complex password that is updated regularly.
B. Members must use a biometric reader to authenticate with Slack.
C. Members use single sign-on (SSO) to handle the exchange of usernames and passwords on behalf of Slack.
D. Members must submit a verification code along with their password each time they sign in.

Correct Answer: D

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TA-002-P HashiCorp Certified: Terraform Associate Exam

 

Cloud engineers can use the Terraform Associate exam from HashiCorp to verify their basic infrastructure automation skills.

HashiCorp Certified: Terraform Associate
The Terraform Associate certification is for Cloud Engineers specializing in operations, IT, or development who know the basic concepts and skills associated with open source HashiCorp Terraform. Candidates will be best prepared for this exam if they have professional experience using Terraform in production, but performing the exam objectives in a personal demo environment may also be sufficient. This person understands which enterprise features exist and what can and cannot be done using the open source offering. Visit our exam partner to schedule and take the exam.
HashiCorp Certification - Terraform Associate
Prerequisites
Basic terminal skills
Basic understanding of on premises and cloud architecture
Product Version Tested
Terraform 0.12 and higher.

Preparing for the Exam
The Terraform Associate exam has both a study guide and a review guide. While much of the information in these two guides are the same, they are presented differently for different uses. Use the study guide if you want to study all the exam objectives. Use the review guide if you already have Terraform experience and want to choose which objectives to review before taking the exam. We provide sample questions so you know what to expect when taking the exam.

Exam Details
Assessment Type Multiple choice
Format Online proctored
Duration 1 hour
Price $70.50 USD
plus locally applicable taxes and fees
Language English
Expiration 2 years

Exam Objectives
1 Understand infrastructure as code (IaC) concepts
1a Explain what IaC is
1b Describe advantages of IaC patterns
2 Understand Terraform's purpose (vs other IaC)
2a Explain multi-cloud and provider-agnostic benefits
2b Explain the benefits of state
3 Understand Terraform basics
3a Handle Terraform and provider installation and versioning
3b Describe plugin based architecture
3c Demonstrate using multiple providers
3d Describe how Terraform finds and fetches providers
3e Explain when to use and not use provisioners and when to use local-exec or remote-exec
4 Use the Terraform CLI (outside of core workflow)
4a Given a scenario: choose when to use terraform fmt to format code
4b Given a scenario: choose when to use terraform taint to taint Terraform resources
4c Given a scenario: choose when to use terraform import to import existing infrastructure into your Terraform state
4d Given a scenario: choose when to use terraform workspace to create workspaces
4e Given a scenario: choose when to use terraform state to view Terraform state
4f Given a scenario: choose when to enable verbose logging and what the outcome/value is
5 Interact with Terraform modules
5a Contrast module source options
5b Interact with module inputs and outputs
5c Describe variable scope within modules/child modules
5d Discover modules from the public Terraform Module Registry
5e Defining module version
6 Navigate Terraform workflow
6a Describe Terraform workflow ( Write -> Plan -> Create )
6b Initialize a Terraform working directory (terraform init)
6c Validate a Terraform configuration (terraform validate)
6d Generate and review an execution plan for Terraform (terraform plan)
6e Execute changes to infrastructure with Terraform (terraform apply)
6f Destroy Terraform managed infrastructure (terraform destroy)
7 Implement and maintain state
7a Describe default local backend
7b Outline state locking
7c Handle backend authentication methods
7d Describe remote state storage mechanisms and supported standard backends
7e Describe effect of Terraform refresh on state
7f Describe backend block in configuration and best practices for partial configurations
7g Understand secret management in state files
8 Read, generate, and modify configuration
8a Demonstrate use of variables and outputs
8b Describe secure secret injection best practice
8c Understand the use of collection and structural types
8d Create and differentiate resource and data configuration
8e Use resource addressing and resource parameters to connect resources together
8f Use Terraform built-in functions to write configuration
8g Configure resource using a dynamic block
8h Describe built-in dependency management (order of execution based)
9 Understand Terraform Cloud and Enterprise capabilities
9a Describe the benefits of Sentinel, registry, and workspaces
9b Differentiate OSS and TFE workspaces
9c Summarize features of Terraform Cloud

QUESTION 1
The terraform.tfstate file always matches your currently built infrastructure.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
One remote backend configuration always maps to a single remote workspace.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
How is the Terraform remote backend different than other state backends such as S3, Consul, etc.?

A. It can execute Terraform runs on dedicated infrastructure on premises or in Terraform Cloud
B. It doesn't show the output of a terraform apply locally
C. It is only available to paying customers
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

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NSE4_FGT-6.4 Fortinet NSE 4 - FortiOS 6.4 Exam

 

Exam series: NSE4_FGT-6.4
Number of questions: 60
Exam time: 105 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.4
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 4 Certification
The Network Security Professional designation identifies your ability to configure, install, and manage the day-to-day configuration, monitoring, and operation of a FortiGate device to support specific corporate network security policies.
Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 6.4
The Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 4 Network Security Professional program, and recognizes the successful candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiGate devices.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiGate configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operational scenarios, configuration extracts, and troubleshooting captures.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 6.4 exam is intended for network and security professionals responsible for the
configuration and administration of firewall solutions in an enterprise network security infrastructure.

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 6.4
Exam series NSE4_FGT-6.4
Time allowed 105 minutes
Exam questions 60 multiple-choice questions
Scoring Pass or fail, a score report is available from your Pearson VUE account
Language English and Japanese
Product version FortiOS 6.4

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
l FortiGate deployment
l Perform initial configuration
l Implement the Fortinet Security Fabric
l Configure log settings and diagnose problems using the logs
l Describe and configure VDOMs to split a FortiGate device into multiple virtual devices
l Identify and configure different operation modes for an FGCP HA cluster
l Diagnose resource and connectivity problems
l Firewall and authentication
l Identify and Configure how firewall policy NAT and central NAT works
l Identify and configure different methods of firewall authentication
l Explain FSSO deployment and configuration
l Content inspection
l Describe and inspect encrypted traffic using certificates
l Identify FortiGate inspection modes and configure web and DNS filtering
l Configure application control to monitor and control network applications
l Explain and configure antivirus scanning modes to neutralize malware threats
l Configure IPS, DoS, and WAF to protect the network from hacking and DDoS attacks
l Configure FortiGate to act as an implicit and explicit web proxy
l Routing and Layer 2 switching
l Configure and route packets using static and policy-based routes
l Configure SD-WAN to load balance traffic between multiple WAN links effectively
l Configure FortiGate interfaces or VDOMs to operate as Layer 2 devices
l VPN
l Configure and implement different SSL-VPN modes to provide secure access to the private network
l Implement a meshed or partially redundant IPsec VPN

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
l NSE 4 FortiGate Security
l NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure

Other Resources
l FortiOS - Administration Guide
l FortiOS - New Features Guide

Experience
l Minimum of six months of hands-on experience with FortiGate

Exam Sample Questions
A set of sample questions is available from the NSE Training Institute. These questions sample the exam content in question type and content scope. However, the questions do not necessarily represent all the exam content, nor are
they intended to assess an individual’s readiness to take the certification exam.
See the NSE Training Institute for the course that includes the sample questions.

Examination Policies and Procedures
The NSE Training Institute recommends that candidates review exam policies and procedures before registering for the exam. Access important information on the Program Polices page, and find answers to common questions on the

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true when FortiGate is in transparent mode? (Choose two.)

A. By default, all interfaces are part of the same broadcast domain.
B. The existing network IP schema must be changed when installing a transparent mode.
C. Static routes are required to allow traffic to the next hop.
D. FortiGate forwards frames without changing the MAC address.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
What inspection mode does FortiGate use if it is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW)?

A. Full Content inspection
B. Proxy-based inspection
C. Certificate inspection
D. Flow-based inspection

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about IPsec authentication on FortiGate are correct? (Choose two.)

A. For a stronger authentication, you can also enable extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password
B. FortiGate supports pre-shared key and signature as authentication methods.
C. Enabling XAuth results in a faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged.
D. A certificate is not required on the remote peer when you set the signature as the authentication method.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which scanning technique on FortiGate can be enabled only on the CLI?

A. Heuristics scan
B. Trojan scan
C. Antivirus scan
D. Ransomware scan

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two policies must be configured to allow traffic on a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW) FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Firewall policy
B. Policy rule
C. Security policy
D. SSL inspection and authentication policy

Correct Answer: AB

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NSE6_FML-6.2 Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiMail 6.2 Exam

 

Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiMail 6.2
Exam series: NSE6_FML-6.2
Number of questions: 30
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiMail 6.2
Status: Available

QUESTION 1
An administrator sees that an excessive amount of storage space on a FortiMail device is being used up by quarantine accounts for invalid users.
The FortiMail is operating in transparent mode.
Which two FortiMail features can the administrator configure to tackle this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Automatic removal of quarantine accounts
B. Recipient address verification
C. Bounce address tag verification
D. Sender address rate control

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
FortiMail is configured with the protected domain example.com.
Which two envelope addresses will require an access receive rule, to relay for unauthenticated senders? (Choose two.)

A. MAIL FROM: accounts@example.com RCPT TO: sales@external.org
B. MAIL FROM: support@example.com RCPT TO: marketing@example.com
C. MAIL FROM: training@external.org RCPT TO: students@external.org
D. MAIL FROM: mis@hosted.net RCPT TO: noc@example.com

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two antispam techniques query FortiGuard for rating information? (Choose two.)

A. DNSBL
B. SURBL
C. IP reputation
D. URI filter

Correct Answer: AB

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NSE6_FNC-8.5 Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiNAC 8.5 Exam

 

Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiNAC 8.5
Exam series: NSE6_FNC-8.5
Number of questions: 30
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiNAC 8.5
Status: Available

Network Security Specialist
The Network Security Specialist designation recognizes your comprehensive skills with fabric products beyond the firewall. This designation is recognized after you achieve at least four Fortinet Specialist certificates on Fortinet enhanced products. The Network Security Specialist curriculum offers nine courses. We recommend this curriculum for network and security professionals who are involved in managing and supporting specific Fortinet

The Fortinet NSE Certification Program
The Fortinet Network Security Expert (NSE) program is an eight-level training and certification program that is designed to provide interested technical professionals with an independent validation of their network security skills and experience. The NSE program includes a wide range of self-paced and instructor-led courses, as well as practical, experiential exercises that demonstrate mastery of complex network security concepts.

QUESTION 1
Which three communication methods are used by the FortiNAC to gather information from, and control, infrastructure devices? (Choose three.)

A. SNMP
B. RADIUS
C. FTP
D. CLI
E. SMTP

Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation:
Set up SNMP communication with FortiNAC
RADIUS Server that is used by FortiNAC to communicate
FortiNAC can be configured via CLI to use HTTP or HTTPS for OS updates instead of FTP.
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortinac/8.3.0/administration-guide/28966/snmp
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortinac/8.8.0/administration-guide/938271/configure-radius-settings
https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/e7ebbdaa-cabf-11ea-8b7d-
00505692583a/FortiNAC_Deployment_Guide.pdf

QUESTION 2
Which three circumstances trigger Layer 2 polling of infrastructure devices? (Choose three.)

A. A matched security policy
B. Scheduled poll timings
C. Linkup and Linkdown traps
D. Manual polling
E. A failed Layer 3 poll

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
How should you configure MAC notification traps on a supported switch?

A. Configure them only on ports set as 802.1q trunks
B. Configure them on all ports except uplink ports
C. Configure them on all ports on the switch
D. Configure them only after you configure linkup and linkdown traps

Correct Answer: B

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ServiceNow CIS-SM Certified Implementation Specialist - Service Mapping Exam

 

CIS-SM - Certified Implementation Specialist - Service Mapping

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become CIS-CSM certified.

Exam Purpose
The Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to lead and contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow CSM application.

Exam Audience
The Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Customer Service Management Certified Implementation Specialist.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.

• ServiceNow Fundamentals
• Get Started with Now Create
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• CMDB Fundamentals
• Customer Service Management Fundamentals
• Customer Service Management Implementation - *Upon completion, the candidate will be eligible to collect a voucher for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam.

Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow, the ServiceNow logo, Now, and other ServiceNow marks are trademarks and/or registered trademarks of ServiceNow, Inc., in the United States
and/or other countries. Other company names, product names, and logos may be trademarks of the respective companies with which they are associated.

• Communities Implementation
• CSM with Service Management for BPC
• Customer Service Management with Service Management for Implementers
• Agent Workspace Fundamentals
• Advanced Work Assignment
• Predictive Intelligence Fundamentals
• Performance Analytics Essentials
• Performance Analytics Fundamentals
• Virtual Agent Overview
• Service Portal Fundamentals

Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• Documentation and Release Notes

Additional Recommended Experience
• Six months field experience participating in ServiceNow CSM deployment projects or maintaining CSM application suite in ServiceNow instances
• Practical knowledge about Customer Services Processes and knowledge of Case workflows
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.

The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam

10% Engagement Methodology and Project Planning
• Project Phases
• Working with Clients
• Team Responsibilities

50% Customer Service Management System Setup and Configuration
• Overview of CSM Application
• CSM in ServiceNow
• CSM Setup

15% Customer Service Management Integration
• Integration Capabilities
• Integration with 3rd Party Systems
• Migration of Historical Case Records

25% CSM Portal, Knowledge Management, Service Catalog, Communities and Performance Analytics
• CSM Portal
• Knowledge Management
• Service Catalog
• Communities and Performance Analytics

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Customer Service Management Implementation training prerequisite. Voucher codes are nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam only.

During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.

NOTE:
A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.

Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately (60) questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response most accurately answers the question.

Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times at a cost.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following represents the skills needed that a Service Mapping administrator or implementer
should have? (Choose four.)

A. Understanding of XML, Regex, Delimited text, and JSON
B. Understanding of protocols such as HTTP, TCP, SNMP, SOAP, and REST
C. Scripting capabilities with respect to Unix and Windows commands
D. Intermediate or above Windows and Unix administration skills
E. Sufficient skills to build an enterprise web site
F. Understanding of relational database theory

Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 2
Which one of the following ServiceNow application KPIs would improve most as a direct result of having visibility to a service map created through Service Mapping?

A. Problem Management: Number of Incidents per Known Problem
B. Incident Management: Mean Time to Resolve
C. Event Management: Signal to Noise Ratio
D. Change Management: Number of Major Changes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How many ServiceNow instances can one MID Server connect to?

A. 1
B. 5
C. Up to 255
D. Unlimited

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When a Windows Server is reclassified from the Server [cmdb_ci_server] table to the Windows Server [cmdb_ci_win_server] table, which one of the following describes the process that occurred?

A. Class Change
B. Class Upgrade
C. Class Switch
D. Class Downgrade

Correct Answer: B

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AD01 Blue Prism Accredited Developer Exam

 

If you’re looking for a career in RPA, then Blue Prism Professional developer certification AD01 is the best option. As it will elevate your career in the RPA platform.

Technologies like artificial intelligence, data analytics and machine learning are now overpowering all the major industries including the IT sector, transitioning into a digital era. While talking about digitalization, many industry leaders agree upon the fact that automation is the need of the hour. Along with this, comes Robotic Process Automation (RPA) which too had made its mark in the IT sector as well.

Justin Watson,a global robotic and intelligent automation leader at Deloitte, said:

“2020 looks to be a breakout year for intelligent automation. Moreover, organizations will combine robotic process automation with artificial intelligence and other technologies to enable new ways of working”.

What is Blue Prism?
There is a wide range of tools available in the RPA market. Amongst, them the Blue Prism is the only tool which holds the capability of virtual workforce powered by software robots. This tool is helpful to the enterprise to automate any business task into an agile and cost-effective operation.

Firstly, Blue Prism offers two different exams for developers.

BLUE PRISM DEVELOPER
First is Blue Prism Developer (Exam code: AD01) AD01 certification is for entry and associate level developers and can be given by anyone regardless of their technical background. A developer certification affirms that you have basic knowledge and are able to work in various Blue Prism platforms and environments. Candidates need to qualify the AD01 exam before starting your blue prism professional developer certification preparation.

BLUE PRISM PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPER
The other one is Blue Prism Professional Developer (Exam code: APD01). This is an advanced level exam in Blue Prism Accreditation program. So, according to the Blue Prism portal, a candidate must have passed the Blue Prism Developer exam (AD01) at least 6 months before appearing for the blue prism professional developer exam.

Benefits of certified Blue Prism Professional Developer AD01
Every sector requires professionals and this certification will help you get ahead of all the other aspiring developers.
Many surveys and reports indicate that a Blue Prism Certified Professional Developer is offered a higher pay in comparison to another employee.
this particular certification is not just to land on a perfect job profile, but also provide personal growth.
since technology is taking over and RPA is becoming the future, certified professionals will never run out of a job.
Blue Prism Professional Developer Certification is accepted all around the globe which gives the candidate an upper hand if they need to move across globally anywhere.
There are so many companies including IBM, Accenture, Deloitte etc. which use Blue Prism to automate their operation, giving you a wide range of companies to apply in.

Exam Overview for AD01
Blue Prism Certified Professional Developer is also known as APD01 exam. This Exam is apt for all the candidates who wish to persue their dream career as a Blue Prism Professional Developer. In order to achieve this certification, candidates need to first qualify the Blue Prism Developer Certification (AD01) Exam.

So, here is a list of skills in which candidates need to be well skilled-
First thing first, Prior knowledge of the broad range of Blue Prism knowledge, experience and skills.
Secondly, Candidate needs to be well skilled in advanced exception handling and work queues.
Next candidate should be proficient in Development best practice, browser automation, Java automation, credentials management and login Agent.
Last but not least, the candidate must be able to handle web services, mainframe automation and Surface Automation.

Exam details: Blue Prism Professional Developer– AD01
Before venturing on any exam journey, it’s always a good idea to be thorough with all the important exam details. In order to avoid any inconvenience, all information regarding the exam should be known beforehand. Therefore, we have provided all the necessary information you may need before applying for the Blue Prism Professional Developer Exam.

Not to mention, Blue Prism Professional Developer Certification (APD01) is the advanced level exam in Blue Prism Developer Hierarchy. The exam consists of 50 multiple choice questions that must be completed within 60 minutes. Moreover, the exam is conducted in only the English language. So, make sure you’re familiar with the language beforehand. Candidates need to score at least 70% to qualify the Blue Prism Professional Developer Exam. Lastly, the examination fee is 65 USD.

Prerequisites to know beforehand
Prerequisites become an important part to understand since every exam has different requirements. To clarify this for you, Blue Prism Professional Developer must have qualified Blue Prism Developer Certification (AD01) Exam. In case the candidate hasn’t qualified the AD01 exam, the candidate is exempted from taking the APD01 exam.

Likewise, Candidate must be able to create, design, develop, and implement the RPA systems. So, make sure, you’re thorough with all the skills before preparing for the exam.
Now that you have a great understanding of all the prerequisites, let’s head towards the course outline.

Blue Prism provides you with all the course outline. This list includes all the modules that need to be covered in the Blue Prism Professional Developer Exam.

So, here is a list of modules would be covered in the examination-
Surfacing automation of terminal emulators
Java Automation Guide
Browser Automation Guide
Developer’s Best Practices
Exception Handling
Using the Mainframe Spy tool
Working the Queues Guide
Mainframe Automation Guide

However, the Blue Prism Professional Developer Certification Preparation won’t be successful, unless you grasp the key concepts in various Blue Prism related data sheets and user guides to apply in the exam. Candidate can easily access these data sheets under the Documents section in the Blue Prism portal. Below, you can see the list of datasheets and user guides available in that section.

User Guide – Login Agent
User Guide – Web Services
Data Sheet – Credential Manager
Data Sheet – Secure Windows Authentication

These modules cover all the skills that will help you qualify the Blue Prism Professional Developer certification examination. In short, just prepare according to the above-mentioned modules and you’re good to go. The moment you are ready with your preparation, just schedule the exam.

How to schedule the exam?
The process to schedule the exam is really very easy. To schedule, you need to first register yourself on the blue prism portal. So, you need to follow the given steps in the process of scheduling the exam.

First, the candidate has to register in blue prism professional developer exam in Pearson VUE portal. (since Pearson VUE is the official exam partner for Blue Prism exams)
Next, the candidate needs to create a free account using your Blue Prism portal ID (the user name you choose when you register your Blue Prism account).
After the creation of the account, the exam list will be displayed where you can easily locate all the listing of the applicable Blue Prism exams. Now choose the link to APD01 and fill all tThe process to schedule the exam is really very easy. To schedule, you need to first register yourself on the blue prism portal. So, you need to follow the given steps in the process of scheduling the exam.
he necessary details here.

In the next page, the candidate can view all the available appointments of the exam. Select the date and time and confirm the location according to your convenience
Lastly, pay the exam fee and your exam will be scheduled immediately.

Now that your exam is scheduled. Check out the preparatory guide below to qualify the exam with flying colours.

QUESTION 1
How many Start Stages can a sub-page in a Process have?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Any Number

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You identify an element in Application Modeller but when you highlight or use that element Blue Prism gives
you an error message saying that duplicate elements were found.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. It is common for duplicate elements to be found based upon the attributes that are ticked by default using the Blue Prism product. Time needs to be spent experimenting with the attribute ticks until a unique, reliable, and consistent selection of attributes is found.
B. It will not be possible to interface with the element in a unique way. You will need to use Surface Automation techniques for this element.
C. A code stage interface will need to be created and used for this application, this will give you more flexibility to interact with the application elements.
D. You will need to make the attributes you have selected dynamic. This will allow your flow to loop around, incrementing the attribute value until the correct element is found and used.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements about Business Objects is true?

A. It is Blue Prism best practice to include business rules within Business Objects
B. A Business Object is configured in the Studio area of Blue Prism
C. A Business Object can be exposed to Control Room
D. Logging of individual stages is not configurable in Business Objects

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A Blue Prism solution works fine when developing and testing it in Process and Object studio but when it is run in Control Room exceptions occur because of screen elements not being found.
What is the most likely cause?

A. The most likely cause for the errors is that your application has changed.
B. The most likely cause for the errors seen in Control Room is that best practice use of wait stages has not been followed.
C. The most likely cause for the errors is that the Object Studio action has not been published and therefore cannot be used by the Process in control room.
D. The most likely cause for the exceptions is that best practice exception handling has not been incorporated into the Process.

Correct Answer: B

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100-490 Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 - RSTECH Exam

 

Exam overview
Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems.

Exam preparation
E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) v3.0

Practice
Practice your skills for this exam in these hands-on lab environments:
Cisco Virtual Internet Routing Lab Personal Edition (VIRL PE)

Cisco Modeling labs

Exam Description:
The Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 (RSTECH 100-490) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question exam associated with Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification. The course, Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products. Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

25% 1.0 General Networking Knowledge
1.1 Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network
1.2 Describe the basic functionality and key differences of this hardware: LAN switch, router, and wireless access points
1.3 Differentiate between these Layer 2 technologies: Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, Serial, and Optical
1.4 Describe LAN cabling
1.5 Describe the function of CSU/DSU
1.6 Describe Telco termination point
1.7 Describe an IPv4 and IPv6 address and subnet
1.8 Describe the function of FTP, TFTP and PING
1.9 Describe the function of Telnet and SSH

20% 2.0 Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware
2.1 Identify the Cisco equipment including the Cisco Nexus 9000 Series, Nexus 7000 Series, Nexus 3000 Series, MDS 9000 Series, Catalyst 9000 Series, Catalyst 6800 Series, Catalyst 6500 E-Series, Catalyst 3850, 3650, 2960, 1000 Series and Meraki switches and Cisco 8000 Series, Cisco ASR 9000 Series, Cisco ASR 1000 Series, NCS 5500 Series ,NCS 5000 Series routers and Cisco 4000, 1100, 900, 800 Series Integrated Service routers.
2.2 Identify Cisco products by logo marking and model number (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.3 Identify Cisco Transceiver Modules
2.4 Identify and locate the serial number of Cisco products (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.5 Identify and describe commonly used components
2.6 Describe hardware memory common terms and their use in Cisco routers and switches
2.7 Identify the cabling on Cisco equipment
2.8 Identify tools for hardware installation and replacement
2.9 Identify the different loop-back plugs (RJ45 Ethernet, T1, 56K)

29% 3.0 Cisco IOS Software Operation
3.1 Describe the key role of Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, IOS-XR and NX-OS software
3.2 Navigate between different operating modes
3.3 Determine the current mode of a device
3.4 Copy and paste a configuration file from/to a router or switch
3.5 Use and interpret the basic Cisco IOS Software commands
3.6 Describe the location and process to change the configuration register parameter
3.7 Identify a configuration file from a Cisco device
3.8 Describe the licensing process on different platforms
3.10 Describe Bundle Mode/Install Mode IOS-XE

26% 4.0 Service-Related Knowledge
4.1 Locate and use a text editor such as, Notepad
4.2 Locate and use the Windows command prompt
4.3 Locate, configure, and use Terminal Emulation (Tera Term, Putty)
4.4 Configure networks settings for Ethernet port on laptop (IP address, subnet mask and default gateway) and establish a connection with Ethernet ports on Cisco equipment using correct cable
4.5 Make a physical connection from laptop to Cisco console port
4.6 Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface
4.7 Configure and use TFTP and FTP servers (TFTP d32/64, FIlezilla)
4.8 Perform software upgrade or downgrade using TFTP, FTP, xmodem, tftpdnld, or USB Storage
4.9 Manage configurations via the TCP/IP network
4.10 Perform password recovery on a Cisco device
4.11 Identify and correct common network problems at Layers 1 and 2 4.11.a Serial or ether interface status 4.11.b Ethernet layer 2 (full and half duplex, speed issues) 4.11.c WAN serial loopback test (T1, 56K and Telco assisted loopback)

QUESTION 1
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?

A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.
C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC

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BCBA Board Certified Behavior Analyst Exam

 

BCBA
The purpose of the Board Certified Behavior Analyst® (BCBA®) examination is to assess knowledge of the BCBA/BCaBA Task List (4th ed.) at a level consistent with that of an entry-level behavior analyst. Before taking the BCBA examination, you must apply to the BACB and provide the requested documentation showing that you have met all eligibility requirements.

The BCBA examination is comprised of 160 multiple-choice questions, 10 of which are ungraded pilot questions. Each question has four possible answers. You have four hours to complete the examination.

Complete applications* are accepted on a continual basis. When your application for initial certification is approved, you will receive an "authorization to test" email, which will include scheduling instructions. Once you receive that email, you may schedule your certification examination online with Pearson Vue and select a date, time, and location that works for you.

*A completed application includes:
Full payment received
Online application submitted and complete
All supporting documents (e.g., university transcript, Experience Verification Forms) and any additional documentation (e.g., degree equivalency evaluation documentation, coursework evaluation documentation, degree evaluation documentation) received.

Content Development
The BCBA examination reflects the best practices in behavior analysis. Industry experts develop the examination, which is based on the results of a formal Job Task Analysis. The BACB follows nationally accepted standards for test development that include the use of subject matter experts and extensive surveys.

QUESTION 1
A behavior analyst is adhering to which underlying assumption of behavior analysis when she conducts several tests of her treatment before she writes it in a formal behavior program?

A. Determinism
B. Law of parsimony
C. Empiricism
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Providing a complete description of one’s procedures in a behavior analytic study of classroom management techniques is adhering to which dimensions of behavior analysis?

A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Describing behavior program procedures in terms of the basic principles of behavior is adhering to which dimension of behavior analysis?

A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When asked why a certain behavior happened, the behavior analyst states that the behavior “came out of nowhere.” If the behavior analyst meant what he said, he is violating the assumption of
__________________.

A. Philosophical doubt
B. Determinism
C. Technological
D. Being conceptually systematic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of applied behavior analysis?

A. Effective
B. Technological
C. Applied
D. Empirical

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A behavior analyst is measuring the time it takes for a client to say, “You’re welcome” after the staff says,
“Thank you.” The behavior analyst is measuring __________________.

A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Inter-response time
D. Latency

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which measure would probably be the best measure for crying?

A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Percentage
D. Latency

Correct Answer: B

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350-901 Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR 350-901) Exam

 

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

Using APIs
Cisco platforms
Application deployment and security
Infrastructure and automation

Exam Description:
Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs v1.0 (DEVCOR 350-901)is a 120-minute exam associated with the DevNet Professional Certification. This exam tests acandidate's knowledge of software development and design including using APIs, Cisco platforms,application deployment and security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, DevelopingApplications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Software Development and Design
1.1 Describe distributed applications related to the concepts of front-end, back-end, and load balancing
1.2 Evaluate an application design considering scalability and modularity
1.3 Evaluate an application design considering high-availability and resiliency (including on-premises, hybrid, and cloud)
1.4 Evaluate an application design considering latency and rate limiting
1.5 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering maintainability
1.6 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering observability
1.7 Diagnose problems with an application given logs related to an event
1.8 Evaluate choice of database types with respect to application requirements (such as relational, document, graph, columnar, and Time Series)
1.9 Explain architectural patterns (monolithic, services oriented, microservices, and event driven)
1.10 Utilize advanced version control operations with Git
1.10.a Merge a branch
1.10.b Resolve conflicts
1.10.c git reset
1.10.d git checkout
1.10.e git revert
1.11 Explain the concepts of release packaging and dependency management
1.12 Construct a sequence diagram that includes API calls

20% 2.0 Using APIs
2.1 Implement robust REST API error handling for time outs and rate limits
2.2 Implement control flow of consumer code for unrecoverable REST API errors
2.3 Identify ways to optimize API usage through HTTP cache controls
2.4 Construct an application that consumes a REST API that supports pagination
2.5 Describe the steps in the OAuth2 three-legged authorization code grant flow
2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 2

20% 3.0 Cisco Platforms
3.1 Construct API requests to implement chatops with Webex Teams API
3.2 Construct API requests to create and delete objects using Firepower device management (FDM)
3.3 Construct API requests using the Meraki platform to accomplish these tasks
3.3.a Use Meraki Dashboard APIs to enable an SSID
3.3.b Use Meraki location APIs to retrieve location data
3.4 Construct API calls to retrieve data from Intersight
3.5 Construct a Python script using the UCS APIs to provision a new UCS server given a template
3.6 Construct a Python script using the Cisco DNA center APIs to retrieve and display wireless health information
3.7 Describe the capabilities of AppDynamics when instrumenting an application
3.8 Describe steps to build a custom dashboard to present data collected from Cisco APIs

20% 4.0 Application Deployment and Security
4.1 Diagnose a CI/CD pipeline failure (such as missing dependency, incompatible versions of components, and failed tests)
4.2 Integrate an application into a prebuilt CD environment leveraging Docker and Kubernetes
4.3 Describe the benefits of continuous testing and static code analysis in a CI pipeline
4.4 Utilize Docker to containerize an application
4.5 Describe the tenets of the "12-factor app"
4.6 Describe an effective logging strategy for an application
4.7 Explain data privacy concerns related to storage and transmission of data
4.8 Identify the secret storage approach relevant to a given scenario
4.9 Configure application specific SSL certificates
4.10 Implement mitigation strategies for OWASP threats (such as XSS, CSRF, and SQL injection)
4.11 Describe how end-to-end encryption principles apply to APIs

20% 5.0 Infrastructure and Automation
5.1 Explain considerations of model-driven telemetry (including data consumption and data storage)
5.2 Utilize RESTCONF to configure a network device including interfaces, static routes, and VLANs (IOS XE only)
5.3 Construct a workflow to configure network parameters with:
5.3.a Ansible playbook
5.3.b Puppet manifest
5.4 Identify a configuration management solution to achieve technical and business requirements
5.5 Describe how to host an application on a network device (including Catalyst 9000 and Cisco IOx-enabled devices)

QUESTION 1
A developer has created an application based on customer requirements. The customer needs to run the
application with the minimum downtime. Which design approach regarding high-availability applications,
Recovery Time Objective, and Recovery Point Objective must be taken?

A. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data
centers must be timely to allow seamless request flow.
B. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data
centers does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
C. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers
does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
D. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers
must be timely to allow seamless request flow.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A cloud native project is being worked on in which all source code and dependencies are written in Python,
Ruby, and/or JavaScnpt. A change in code triggers a notification to the CI/CD tool to run the CI/CD pipeline.
Which step should be omitted from the pipeline?

A. Deploy the code to one or more environments, such as staging and/or production.
B. Build one of more containers that package up code and all its dependencies.
C. Compile code.
D. Run automated tests to validate the correctness.


QUESTION 3
Which two statements are considered best practices according to the 12-factor app methodology for application design? (Choose two.)

A. Application code writes its event stream to stdout.
B. Application log streams are archived in multiple replicated databases.
C. Application log streams are sent to log indexing and analysis systems.
D. Application code writes its event stream to specific log files.
E. Log files are aggregated into a single file on individual nodes.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture. No
notable issues occur with downtime because the services of this application are redundantly deployed over
three or more data center regions. However, several times a week reports are received about application
slowness. The container orchestration logs show faults in a variety of containers that cause them to fail and
then spin up brand new.
Which action must be taken to improve the resiliency design of the application while maintaining current scale?

A. Update the base image of the containers.
B. Test the execution of the application with another cloud services platform.
C. Increase the number of containers running per service.
D. Add consistent “try/catch(exception)” clauses to the code.

Correct Answer: D

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300-910 Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (300-910 DEVOPS) Exam

 

Exam Description:
Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms v1.0 (DEVOPS 300-910) is a 90-minute exam associated with the DevNet Professional Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of DevOps practices as it pertains to deployment automation that enables automated configuration, management, and scalability of cloud microservices and infrastructure processes on Cisco platforms. The course, Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 CI/CD Pipeline
1.1 Describe characteristics and concepts of build /deploy tools such as Jenkins, Drone, or Travis CI
1.2 Identify the sequence, components, and integrations to implement a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
1.3 Troubleshoot issues with a CI/CD pipeline such as code-based failures, pipeline issues, and tool incompatibility
1.4 Identify tests to integrate into a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
1.5 Identify release deployment strategy (canary, rollbacks, and blue/green) for a given scenario
1.6 Diagnose code dependency management issues including API, tool chain, and libraries

15% 2.0 Packaging and Delivery of Applications
2.1 Identify the steps to containerize an application
2.2 Identify steps to deploy multiple microservice applications
2.3 Evaluate microservices and container architecture diagrams based on technical and business requirements (security, performance, stability, and cost)
2.4 Identify safe handling practices for configuration items, application parameters, and secrets
2.5 Construct a Docker file to address application specifications
2.6 Describe the usage of golden images to deploy applications

20% 3.0 Automating Infrastructure
3.1 Describe how to integrate DevOps practices into an existing organization structure
3.2 Describe the use of configuration management tools to automate infrastructure services such as Ansible, Puppet, Terraform, and Chef
3.3 Construct an Ansible playbook to automate an application deployment of infrastructure services
3.4 Construct a Terraform configuration to automate an application deployment of infrastructure services
3.5 Describe the practice and benefits of Infrastructure as Code
3.6 Design a pre-check validation of the network state in a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
3.7 Design a pre-check validation of the application infrastructure in a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
3.8 Describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps
3.9 Identify the requirements such as memory, disk I/O, network, and CPU needed to scale the application or service

15% 4.0 Cloud and Multicloud
4.1 Describe the concepts and objects of Kubernetes
4.2 Deploy applications to a Kubernetes cluster
4.3 Utilize objects of Kubernetes to build a deployment to meet requirements
4.4 Interpret the pipeline for continuous delivery of a Drone configuration file
4.5 Validate the success of an application deployment on Kubernetes
4.6 Describe method and considerations to deploy an application to multiple environments such as multiple cloud providers, high availability configurations, disaster recovery configurations, and testing cloud portability
4.7 Describe the process of tracking and projecting costs when consuming public cloud
4.8 Describe benefits of infrastructure as code for repeatable public cloud consumption
4.9 Compare cloud services strategies (build versus buy)

20% 5.0 Logging, Monitoring, and Metrics
5.1 Identify the elements of log and metric systems to facilitate application troubleshooting such as performance issues and streaming telemetry logs
5.2 Implement a log collection and reporting system for applications
5.2.a aggregate logs from multiple related applications
5.2.b search capabilities
5.2.c reporting capabilities
5.3 Troubleshoot a distributed application using AppDyanmics with Application Performance Monitoring
5.4 Describe the principles of chaos engineering
5.5 Construct Python scripts that use APIs to accomplish these tasks
5.5.a build a monitoring dashboard
5.5.b notify Webex Teams space
5.5.c responding to alerts and outages
5.5.d creating notifications
5.5.e health check monitoring
5.5.f opening and closing incidents
5.6 Identify additional application requirements to provide visibility into application health and performance
5.7 Describe Kubernetes capabilities related to logging, monitoring, and metrics
5.8 Describe the integration of logging, monitoring and alerting in a CI/CD pipeline design
2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 3

10% 6.0 Security
6.1 Identify methods to secure an application and infrastructure during production and testing in a CI/CD pipeline
6.2 Identify methods to implement a secure software development life cycle

QUESTION 1
A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins
B. Genie CLI
C. Travis CI
D. Python YAML data libraries

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two practices help make the security of an application a more integral part of the software development lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a dynamic code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.
B. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a static code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.
C. Use only software modules that are written by the internal team.
D. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline to modify the release plan so that updated versions of the software are made available more often.
E. Ensure that the code repository server has enabled drive encryption and stores the keys on a Trusted Platform Module or Hardware Security Module.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed.
A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory.
It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.
Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan
B. terraform check
C. terraform fmt
D. terraform validate

Correct Answer: D
 

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JN0-635 Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) Exam

 

Exam Details
JNCIP-SEC exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses, as well as the additional resources.

Exam code: JN0-635
Written exam
Administered by Pearson VUE
Exam length: 120 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple choice questions
Pass/fail status is available immediately

Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam.

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of firewall filters and ACLs
Selective packet processing
Troubleshooting with firewall filters
Filter-based forwarding

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor firewall filters

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to troubleshoot or monitor security policies or security zones
Tools
Logging and tracing
Other outputs

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Juniper ATP
Collectors
Custom rules
Mitigation

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor Juniper ATP

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of edge security features
Hardware support
SecIntel
IPS
Corero DDoS mitigation
ATP

Describe the concepts or operation of security compliance
RBAC
Security Director
AAA and SAML integration

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of threat mitigation
Malware identification or mitigation
Malicious lateral traffic identification or mitigation
Zero trust micro segmentation

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor threat mitigation

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of the logical systems
Administrative roles
Security profiles
LSYS communication

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of the tenant systems
Master and tenant admins
TSYS capacity

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 security
Transparent mode
Mixed mode
Secure wire
MACsec

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor Layer 2 security

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced NAT functionality
Persistent NAT
DNS doctoring
IPv6 NAT

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced NAT scenarios

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced IPsec application
Remote access VPNs
Hub-and-spoke VPNs
PKI
ADVPNs
Routing with IPsec
Overlapping IP addresses
Dynamic gateways
IPsec CoS

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced IPsec functionality

Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate’s motivation, experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed on this page helpful as well.

QUESTION 1
Your organization has multiple Active Directory domains to control user access. You must ensure that security policies are passing traffic based upon the users’ access rights.
What would you use to assist your SRX Series devices to accomplish this task?

A. JATP Appliance
B. JIMS
C. JSA
D. Junos Space

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You are asked to set up notifications if one of your collector traffic feeds drops below 100 kbps.
Which two configuration parameters must be set to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Set a traffic SNMP trap on the JATP appliance
B. Set a logging notification on the JATP appliance
C. Set a general triggered notification on the JATP appliance
D. Set a traffic system alert on the JATP appliance

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You have configured static NAT for a webserver in your DMZ. Both internal and external users can reach the
webserver using the webserver’s IP address. However, only internal users can reach the webserver using the
webserver’s DNS name. When external users attempt to reach the webserver using the webserver’s DNS name, an error message is received.
Which action would solve this problem?

A. Disable Web filtering
B. Use DNS doctoring
C. Modify the security policy
D. Use destination NAT instead of static NAT

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which interface family is required for Layer 2 transparent mode on SRX Series devices?

A. LLDP
B. Ethernet switching
C. inet
D. VPLS

Correct Answer: B

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