100-490 Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 - RSTECH Exam

 

Exam overview
Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems.

Exam preparation
E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) v3.0

Practice
Practice your skills for this exam in these hands-on lab environments:
Cisco Virtual Internet Routing Lab Personal Edition (VIRL PE)

Cisco Modeling labs

Exam Description:
The Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 (RSTECH 100-490) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question exam associated with Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification. The course, Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products. Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

25% 1.0 General Networking Knowledge
1.1 Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network
1.2 Describe the basic functionality and key differences of this hardware: LAN switch, router, and wireless access points
1.3 Differentiate between these Layer 2 technologies: Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, Serial, and Optical
1.4 Describe LAN cabling
1.5 Describe the function of CSU/DSU
1.6 Describe Telco termination point
1.7 Describe an IPv4 and IPv6 address and subnet
1.8 Describe the function of FTP, TFTP and PING
1.9 Describe the function of Telnet and SSH

20% 2.0 Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware
2.1 Identify the Cisco equipment including the Cisco Nexus 9000 Series, Nexus 7000 Series, Nexus 3000 Series, MDS 9000 Series, Catalyst 9000 Series, Catalyst 6800 Series, Catalyst 6500 E-Series, Catalyst 3850, 3650, 2960, 1000 Series and Meraki switches and Cisco 8000 Series, Cisco ASR 9000 Series, Cisco ASR 1000 Series, NCS 5500 Series ,NCS 5000 Series routers and Cisco 4000, 1100, 900, 800 Series Integrated Service routers.
2.2 Identify Cisco products by logo marking and model number (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.3 Identify Cisco Transceiver Modules
2.4 Identify and locate the serial number of Cisco products (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.5 Identify and describe commonly used components
2.6 Describe hardware memory common terms and their use in Cisco routers and switches
2.7 Identify the cabling on Cisco equipment
2.8 Identify tools for hardware installation and replacement
2.9 Identify the different loop-back plugs (RJ45 Ethernet, T1, 56K)

29% 3.0 Cisco IOS Software Operation
3.1 Describe the key role of Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, IOS-XR and NX-OS software
3.2 Navigate between different operating modes
3.3 Determine the current mode of a device
3.4 Copy and paste a configuration file from/to a router or switch
3.5 Use and interpret the basic Cisco IOS Software commands
3.6 Describe the location and process to change the configuration register parameter
3.7 Identify a configuration file from a Cisco device
3.8 Describe the licensing process on different platforms
3.10 Describe Bundle Mode/Install Mode IOS-XE

26% 4.0 Service-Related Knowledge
4.1 Locate and use a text editor such as, Notepad
4.2 Locate and use the Windows command prompt
4.3 Locate, configure, and use Terminal Emulation (Tera Term, Putty)
4.4 Configure networks settings for Ethernet port on laptop (IP address, subnet mask and default gateway) and establish a connection with Ethernet ports on Cisco equipment using correct cable
4.5 Make a physical connection from laptop to Cisco console port
4.6 Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface
4.7 Configure and use TFTP and FTP servers (TFTP d32/64, FIlezilla)
4.8 Perform software upgrade or downgrade using TFTP, FTP, xmodem, tftpdnld, or USB Storage
4.9 Manage configurations via the TCP/IP network
4.10 Perform password recovery on a Cisco device
4.11 Identify and correct common network problems at Layers 1 and 2 4.11.a Serial or ether interface status 4.11.b Ethernet layer 2 (full and half duplex, speed issues) 4.11.c WAN serial loopback test (T1, 56K and Telco assisted loopback)

QUESTION 1
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?

A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.
C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC

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BCBA Board Certified Behavior Analyst Exam

 

BCBA
The purpose of the Board Certified Behavior Analyst® (BCBA®) examination is to assess knowledge of the BCBA/BCaBA Task List (4th ed.) at a level consistent with that of an entry-level behavior analyst. Before taking the BCBA examination, you must apply to the BACB and provide the requested documentation showing that you have met all eligibility requirements.

The BCBA examination is comprised of 160 multiple-choice questions, 10 of which are ungraded pilot questions. Each question has four possible answers. You have four hours to complete the examination.

Complete applications* are accepted on a continual basis. When your application for initial certification is approved, you will receive an "authorization to test" email, which will include scheduling instructions. Once you receive that email, you may schedule your certification examination online with Pearson Vue and select a date, time, and location that works for you.

*A completed application includes:
Full payment received
Online application submitted and complete
All supporting documents (e.g., university transcript, Experience Verification Forms) and any additional documentation (e.g., degree equivalency evaluation documentation, coursework evaluation documentation, degree evaluation documentation) received.

Content Development
The BCBA examination reflects the best practices in behavior analysis. Industry experts develop the examination, which is based on the results of a formal Job Task Analysis. The BACB follows nationally accepted standards for test development that include the use of subject matter experts and extensive surveys.

QUESTION 1
A behavior analyst is adhering to which underlying assumption of behavior analysis when she conducts several tests of her treatment before she writes it in a formal behavior program?

A. Determinism
B. Law of parsimony
C. Empiricism
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Providing a complete description of one’s procedures in a behavior analytic study of classroom management techniques is adhering to which dimensions of behavior analysis?

A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Describing behavior program procedures in terms of the basic principles of behavior is adhering to which dimension of behavior analysis?

A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When asked why a certain behavior happened, the behavior analyst states that the behavior “came out of nowhere.” If the behavior analyst meant what he said, he is violating the assumption of
__________________.

A. Philosophical doubt
B. Determinism
C. Technological
D. Being conceptually systematic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of applied behavior analysis?

A. Effective
B. Technological
C. Applied
D. Empirical

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A behavior analyst is measuring the time it takes for a client to say, “You’re welcome” after the staff says,
“Thank you.” The behavior analyst is measuring __________________.

A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Inter-response time
D. Latency

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which measure would probably be the best measure for crying?

A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Percentage
D. Latency

Correct Answer: B

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350-901 Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR 350-901) Exam

 

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

Using APIs
Cisco platforms
Application deployment and security
Infrastructure and automation

Exam Description:
Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs v1.0 (DEVCOR 350-901)is a 120-minute exam associated with the DevNet Professional Certification. This exam tests acandidate's knowledge of software development and design including using APIs, Cisco platforms,application deployment and security, and infrastructure and automation. The course, DevelopingApplications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Software Development and Design
1.1 Describe distributed applications related to the concepts of front-end, back-end, and load balancing
1.2 Evaluate an application design considering scalability and modularity
1.3 Evaluate an application design considering high-availability and resiliency (including on-premises, hybrid, and cloud)
1.4 Evaluate an application design considering latency and rate limiting
1.5 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering maintainability
1.6 Evaluate an application design and implementation considering observability
1.7 Diagnose problems with an application given logs related to an event
1.8 Evaluate choice of database types with respect to application requirements (such as relational, document, graph, columnar, and Time Series)
1.9 Explain architectural patterns (monolithic, services oriented, microservices, and event driven)
1.10 Utilize advanced version control operations with Git
1.10.a Merge a branch
1.10.b Resolve conflicts
1.10.c git reset
1.10.d git checkout
1.10.e git revert
1.11 Explain the concepts of release packaging and dependency management
1.12 Construct a sequence diagram that includes API calls

20% 2.0 Using APIs
2.1 Implement robust REST API error handling for time outs and rate limits
2.2 Implement control flow of consumer code for unrecoverable REST API errors
2.3 Identify ways to optimize API usage through HTTP cache controls
2.4 Construct an application that consumes a REST API that supports pagination
2.5 Describe the steps in the OAuth2 three-legged authorization code grant flow
2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 2

20% 3.0 Cisco Platforms
3.1 Construct API requests to implement chatops with Webex Teams API
3.2 Construct API requests to create and delete objects using Firepower device management (FDM)
3.3 Construct API requests using the Meraki platform to accomplish these tasks
3.3.a Use Meraki Dashboard APIs to enable an SSID
3.3.b Use Meraki location APIs to retrieve location data
3.4 Construct API calls to retrieve data from Intersight
3.5 Construct a Python script using the UCS APIs to provision a new UCS server given a template
3.6 Construct a Python script using the Cisco DNA center APIs to retrieve and display wireless health information
3.7 Describe the capabilities of AppDynamics when instrumenting an application
3.8 Describe steps to build a custom dashboard to present data collected from Cisco APIs

20% 4.0 Application Deployment and Security
4.1 Diagnose a CI/CD pipeline failure (such as missing dependency, incompatible versions of components, and failed tests)
4.2 Integrate an application into a prebuilt CD environment leveraging Docker and Kubernetes
4.3 Describe the benefits of continuous testing and static code analysis in a CI pipeline
4.4 Utilize Docker to containerize an application
4.5 Describe the tenets of the "12-factor app"
4.6 Describe an effective logging strategy for an application
4.7 Explain data privacy concerns related to storage and transmission of data
4.8 Identify the secret storage approach relevant to a given scenario
4.9 Configure application specific SSL certificates
4.10 Implement mitigation strategies for OWASP threats (such as XSS, CSRF, and SQL injection)
4.11 Describe how end-to-end encryption principles apply to APIs

20% 5.0 Infrastructure and Automation
5.1 Explain considerations of model-driven telemetry (including data consumption and data storage)
5.2 Utilize RESTCONF to configure a network device including interfaces, static routes, and VLANs (IOS XE only)
5.3 Construct a workflow to configure network parameters with:
5.3.a Ansible playbook
5.3.b Puppet manifest
5.4 Identify a configuration management solution to achieve technical and business requirements
5.5 Describe how to host an application on a network device (including Catalyst 9000 and Cisco IOx-enabled devices)

QUESTION 1
A developer has created an application based on customer requirements. The customer needs to run the
application with the minimum downtime. Which design approach regarding high-availability applications,
Recovery Time Objective, and Recovery Point Objective must be taken?

A. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data
centers must be timely to allow seamless request flow.
B. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data
centers does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
C. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers
does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
D. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers
must be timely to allow seamless request flow.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A cloud native project is being worked on in which all source code and dependencies are written in Python,
Ruby, and/or JavaScnpt. A change in code triggers a notification to the CI/CD tool to run the CI/CD pipeline.
Which step should be omitted from the pipeline?

A. Deploy the code to one or more environments, such as staging and/or production.
B. Build one of more containers that package up code and all its dependencies.
C. Compile code.
D. Run automated tests to validate the correctness.


QUESTION 3
Which two statements are considered best practices according to the 12-factor app methodology for application design? (Choose two.)

A. Application code writes its event stream to stdout.
B. Application log streams are archived in multiple replicated databases.
C. Application log streams are sent to log indexing and analysis systems.
D. Application code writes its event stream to specific log files.
E. Log files are aggregated into a single file on individual nodes.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture. No
notable issues occur with downtime because the services of this application are redundantly deployed over
three or more data center regions. However, several times a week reports are received about application
slowness. The container orchestration logs show faults in a variety of containers that cause them to fail and
then spin up brand new.
Which action must be taken to improve the resiliency design of the application while maintaining current scale?

A. Update the base image of the containers.
B. Test the execution of the application with another cloud services platform.
C. Increase the number of containers running per service.
D. Add consistent “try/catch(exception)” clauses to the code.

Correct Answer: D

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300-910 Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (300-910 DEVOPS) Exam

 

Exam Description:
Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms v1.0 (DEVOPS 300-910) is a 90-minute exam associated with the DevNet Professional Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of DevOps practices as it pertains to deployment automation that enables automated configuration, management, and scalability of cloud microservices and infrastructure processes on Cisco platforms. The course, Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 CI/CD Pipeline
1.1 Describe characteristics and concepts of build /deploy tools such as Jenkins, Drone, or Travis CI
1.2 Identify the sequence, components, and integrations to implement a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
1.3 Troubleshoot issues with a CI/CD pipeline such as code-based failures, pipeline issues, and tool incompatibility
1.4 Identify tests to integrate into a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
1.5 Identify release deployment strategy (canary, rollbacks, and blue/green) for a given scenario
1.6 Diagnose code dependency management issues including API, tool chain, and libraries

15% 2.0 Packaging and Delivery of Applications
2.1 Identify the steps to containerize an application
2.2 Identify steps to deploy multiple microservice applications
2.3 Evaluate microservices and container architecture diagrams based on technical and business requirements (security, performance, stability, and cost)
2.4 Identify safe handling practices for configuration items, application parameters, and secrets
2.5 Construct a Docker file to address application specifications
2.6 Describe the usage of golden images to deploy applications

20% 3.0 Automating Infrastructure
3.1 Describe how to integrate DevOps practices into an existing organization structure
3.2 Describe the use of configuration management tools to automate infrastructure services such as Ansible, Puppet, Terraform, and Chef
3.3 Construct an Ansible playbook to automate an application deployment of infrastructure services
3.4 Construct a Terraform configuration to automate an application deployment of infrastructure services
3.5 Describe the practice and benefits of Infrastructure as Code
3.6 Design a pre-check validation of the network state in a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
3.7 Design a pre-check validation of the application infrastructure in a CI/CD pipeline for a given scenario
3.8 Describe the concepts of extending DevOps practices to the network for NetDevOps
3.9 Identify the requirements such as memory, disk I/O, network, and CPU needed to scale the application or service

15% 4.0 Cloud and Multicloud
4.1 Describe the concepts and objects of Kubernetes
4.2 Deploy applications to a Kubernetes cluster
4.3 Utilize objects of Kubernetes to build a deployment to meet requirements
4.4 Interpret the pipeline for continuous delivery of a Drone configuration file
4.5 Validate the success of an application deployment on Kubernetes
4.6 Describe method and considerations to deploy an application to multiple environments such as multiple cloud providers, high availability configurations, disaster recovery configurations, and testing cloud portability
4.7 Describe the process of tracking and projecting costs when consuming public cloud
4.8 Describe benefits of infrastructure as code for repeatable public cloud consumption
4.9 Compare cloud services strategies (build versus buy)

20% 5.0 Logging, Monitoring, and Metrics
5.1 Identify the elements of log and metric systems to facilitate application troubleshooting such as performance issues and streaming telemetry logs
5.2 Implement a log collection and reporting system for applications
5.2.a aggregate logs from multiple related applications
5.2.b search capabilities
5.2.c reporting capabilities
5.3 Troubleshoot a distributed application using AppDyanmics with Application Performance Monitoring
5.4 Describe the principles of chaos engineering
5.5 Construct Python scripts that use APIs to accomplish these tasks
5.5.a build a monitoring dashboard
5.5.b notify Webex Teams space
5.5.c responding to alerts and outages
5.5.d creating notifications
5.5.e health check monitoring
5.5.f opening and closing incidents
5.6 Identify additional application requirements to provide visibility into application health and performance
5.7 Describe Kubernetes capabilities related to logging, monitoring, and metrics
5.8 Describe the integration of logging, monitoring and alerting in a CI/CD pipeline design
2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 3

10% 6.0 Security
6.1 Identify methods to secure an application and infrastructure during production and testing in a CI/CD pipeline
6.2 Identify methods to implement a secure software development life cycle

QUESTION 1
A DevOps engineer must validate the working state of the network before implementing a CI/CD pipeline model. Which configuration management tool is designed to accomplish this?

A. Jenkins
B. Genie CLI
C. Travis CI
D. Python YAML data libraries

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two practices help make the security of an application a more integral part of the software development lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a dynamic code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.
B. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a static code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.
C. Use only software modules that are written by the internal team.
D. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline to modify the release plan so that updated versions of the software are made available more often.
E. Ensure that the code repository server has enabled drive encryption and stores the keys on a Trusted Platform Module or Hardware Security Module.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed.
A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory.
It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.
Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan
B. terraform check
C. terraform fmt
D. terraform validate

Correct Answer: D
 

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JN0-635 Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) Exam

 

Exam Details
JNCIP-SEC exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses, as well as the additional resources.

Exam code: JN0-635
Written exam
Administered by Pearson VUE
Exam length: 120 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple choice questions
Pass/fail status is available immediately

Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam.

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of firewall filters and ACLs
Selective packet processing
Troubleshooting with firewall filters
Filter-based forwarding

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor firewall filters

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to troubleshoot or monitor security policies or security zones
Tools
Logging and tracing
Other outputs

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Juniper ATP
Collectors
Custom rules
Mitigation

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor Juniper ATP

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of edge security features
Hardware support
SecIntel
IPS
Corero DDoS mitigation
ATP

Describe the concepts or operation of security compliance
RBAC
Security Director
AAA and SAML integration

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of threat mitigation
Malware identification or mitigation
Malicious lateral traffic identification or mitigation
Zero trust micro segmentation

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor threat mitigation

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of the logical systems
Administrative roles
Security profiles
LSYS communication

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of the tenant systems
Master and tenant admins
TSYS capacity

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 security
Transparent mode
Mixed mode
Secure wire
MACsec

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure or monitor Layer 2 security

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced NAT functionality
Persistent NAT
DNS doctoring
IPv6 NAT

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced NAT scenarios

Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced IPsec application
Remote access VPNs
Hub-and-spoke VPNs
PKI
ADVPNs
Routing with IPsec
Overlapping IP addresses
Dynamic gateways
IPsec CoS

Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced IPsec functionality

Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate’s motivation, experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed on this page helpful as well.

QUESTION 1
Your organization has multiple Active Directory domains to control user access. You must ensure that security policies are passing traffic based upon the users’ access rights.
What would you use to assist your SRX Series devices to accomplish this task?

A. JATP Appliance
B. JIMS
C. JSA
D. Junos Space

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You are asked to set up notifications if one of your collector traffic feeds drops below 100 kbps.
Which two configuration parameters must be set to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Set a traffic SNMP trap on the JATP appliance
B. Set a logging notification on the JATP appliance
C. Set a general triggered notification on the JATP appliance
D. Set a traffic system alert on the JATP appliance

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You have configured static NAT for a webserver in your DMZ. Both internal and external users can reach the
webserver using the webserver’s IP address. However, only internal users can reach the webserver using the
webserver’s DNS name. When external users attempt to reach the webserver using the webserver’s DNS name, an error message is received.
Which action would solve this problem?

A. Disable Web filtering
B. Use DNS doctoring
C. Modify the security policy
D. Use destination NAT instead of static NAT

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which interface family is required for Layer 2 transparent mode on SRX Series devices?

A. LLDP
B. Ethernet switching
C. inet
D. VPLS

Correct Answer: B

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CWNA-108 Certified Wireless Network Administrator Exam

 

CWNA-108 Objectives

Introduction
The Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA) understands standards and operations of 802.11 wireless networks. Responsibilities include deploying, managing, monitoring, and basic troubleshooting of these networks. The CWNA has the ability to describe devices and operations of current WLAN technologies.

The CWNA exam has no prerequisites; however, the following are recommended before attempting the CWNA exam:
● Basic knowledge of networking (routers, switches, cabling, etc.)
● Basic knowledge of TCP/IP
● At least 1 year of work experience with wireless LAN technologies

The skills and knowledge measured by this examination are derived from a Job Task Analysis (JTA) involving wireless networking experts (CWNEs) and professionals. The results of this JTA were used in weighing the subject areas and ensuring that the weighting is representative of the relative importance of the content.
When you pass the CWNA exam, you earn credit towards the CWSP, CWDP, CWAP, and CWNE certifications and you earn the CWNA certification.
The following chart provides the breakdown of the exam as to the distribution of questions within each knowledge domain.

Radio Frequency (RF) Technologies
WLAN Regulations and Standards
WLAN Protocols and Devices
WLAN Network Architecture and Design Concepts
WLAN Network Security
RF Validation
WLAN Troubleshooting

CWNP Authorized Materials Use Policy
CWNP does not condone the use of unauthorized 'training materials' such as 'brain dumps'. Individuals who utilize such materials to pass CWNP exams will have their certifications revoked. In an effort to more clearly communicate CWNP's policy on use of unauthorized study materials, CWNP directs all certification candidates to the CWNP Candidate Conduct Policy at:


1.0 Radio Frequency (RF) Technologies – 15%
1.1 Define and explain the basic characteristics of RF and RF behavior
• Wavelength, frequency, amplitude, phase, sine waves
• RF propagation and coverage
• Reflection, refraction, diffraction and scattering
• Multipath and RF interference
• Gain and loss
• Amplification
• Attenuation
• Absorption
• Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR)
• Return Loss
• Free Space Path Loss (FSPL)

1.2 Apply the basic concepts of RF mathematics and measurement
• Watt and milliwatt
• Decibel (dB)
• dBm and dBi
• Noise floor
• SNR
• RSSI
• dBm to mW conversion rules of 10 and 3
• Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)

1.3 Identify RF signal characteristics as they relate to antennas.
• RF and physical line of sight and Fresnel zone clearance
• Beamwidths
• Passive gain
• Polarization
• Antenna diversity types
• Radio chains
• Spatial multiplexing (SM)
• Transmit Beamforming (TxBF)
• Maximal Ratio Combining (MRC)
• MIMO

1.4 Explain and apply the functionality of RF antennas, antenna systems, and accessories available
• Omni-directional antennas
• Semi-directional antennas
• Highly directional antennas
• Reading Azimuth and Elevation charts for different antenna types
• Antenna orientation
• RF cables and connectors
• Lightning arrestors and grounding rods/wires

2.0 WLAN Regulations and Standards – 20%
2.1 Explain the roles of WLAN and networking industry organizations
• IEEE
• Wi-Fi Alliance
• IETF
• Regulatory domains and agencies

2.2 Explain and apply the various Physical Layer (PHY) solutions of the IEEE 802.11-2016 standard as amended including supported channel widths, spatial streams, data rates.
• DSSS – 802.11
• HR-DSSS – 802.11b
• OFDM – 802.11a
• ERP – 802.11g
• Wi-Fi 4 - HT – 802.11n
• Wi-Fi 5 - VHT – 802.11ac
• Wi-Fi 6 - HE - 802.11ax

2.3 Understand spread spectrum technologies, Modulation and Coding Schemes (MCS)
• DSSS
• OFDM
• OFDMA and Resource Units
• BPSK
• QPSK
• QAM (16, 64, 256,1024)

2.4 Identify and apply 802.11 WLAN functional concepts
• Primary channels
• Adjacent overlapping and non-overlapping channels
• Throughput vs. data rate
• Bandwidth
• Guard Interval

2.5 Describe the OSI model layers affected by the 802.11-2016 standard and amendments

2.6 Identify and comply with regulatory domain requirements and constraints (specifically in 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz)
• Frequency bands used by the 802.11 PHYs
• Available channels
• Regulatory power constraints
• Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS)
• Transmit Power Control (TPC)

2.7 Explain basic use case scenarios for 802.11 wireless networks
• Wireless LAN (WLAN) – BSS and ESS
• Wireless bridging
• Wireless Ad-Hoc (IBSS)
• Wireless Mesh

3.0 WLAN Protocols and Devices – 20%
3.1 Describe the components and functions that make up an 802.11 wireless service set
• Stations (STAs)
• Basic Service Set (BSS) (Infrastructure mode)
• SSID
• BSSID
• Extended Service Set (ESS)
• IBSS (Ad-Hoc)
• Distribution System (DS)
• Distribution System Media (DSM)

3.2 Define terminology related to the 802.11 MAC and PHY
• MSDU, MPDU, PSDU, and PPDU
• A-MSDU and A-MPDU
• PHY preamble and header
3.3 Identify and explain the MAC frame format
• MAC frame format
• MAC addressing
3.4 Identify and explain the purpose of the three main 802.11 frame types
• Management
• Control
• Data

3.5 Explain the process used to locate and connect to a WLAN
• Scanning (active and passive)
• Authentication
• Association
• Open System Authentication and Shared Key authentication
• Connecting to 802.1X/EAP and Pre-Shared Key authentication networks
• BSS selection
• Connecting to hidden SSIDs

3.6 Explain 802.11 channel access methods
• DCF
• EDCA
• RTS/CTS
• CTS-to-Self
• NAV
• Interframe spaces (SIFS, DIFS, EIFS, AIFS)
• Physical carrier sense and virtual carrier sense
• Hidden node

3.7 Explain 802.11 MAC operations
• Roaming
• Power save modes and frame buffering
• Protection mechanisms

3.8 Describe features of, select, and install WLAN devices, control, and management systems
• Access Points (APs)
• WLAN controllers
• Wireless network management systems
• Wireless bridge and mesh APs
• Client devices

4.0 WLAN Network Architecture and Design Concepts– 15%

4.1 Describe and implement Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3af, 802.3at, 802.3bt
• Power Source Equipment
• Powered Device
• Midspan and endpoint PSEs
• Power classes to include power differences between PSE and PD
• Power budgets and powered port density

4.2 Define and describe differences, advantages and constraints of the different wireless LAN architectures
• Centralized data forwarding
• Distributed data forwarding
• Control, Management and Data planes
• Scalability and availability solutions
• Tunneling, QoS and VLANs

4.3 Describe design considerations for common deployment scenarios in wireless such as coverage requirements, roaming considerations, throughput, capacity and security
• Design considerations for data
• Design considerations for voice
• Design considerations for video
• Design considerations for location services including Real-Time Location Services (RTLS)
• Design considerations for highly mobile devices (e.g. tablets and smartphones)
• Capacity planning for high and very high-density environments
• Design considerations for guest access/BYOD
• Design considerations for supporting legacy 802.11 devices

4.4 Demonstrate awareness of common proprietary features in wireless networks.
• AirTime Fairness
• Band steering
• Dynamic power and channel management features

4.5 Determine and configure required network services supporting the wireless network
• DHCP for client addressing, AP addressing and/or controller discovery
• DNS for address resolution for clients and APs
• Time synchronization protocols (e.g. NTP, SNTP)
• VLANs for segmentation
• Authentication services (e.g. RADIUS, LDAP)
• Access Control Lists for segmentation
• Wired network capacity requirements

5.0 WLAN Network Security – 10%

5.1 Identify weak security options that should not be used in enterprise WLANs
• WEP
• Shared Key authentication
• SSID hiding as a security mechanism
• MAC filtering
• Use of deprecated security methods (e.g. WPA and/or WPA2 with TKIP)
• Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)

5.2 Identify and configure effective security mechanisms for enterprise WLANs
• Application of AES with CCMP for encryption and integrity
• WPA2-Personal including limitations and best practices for pre-shared (PSK) use
• WPA2-Enterprise -configuring wireless networks to use 802.1X including connecting to RADIUS servers and appropriate EAP methods

5.3 Understand basic concepts of WPA3 and Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and enhancements compared to WPA2
• Understand basic security enhancements in WPA3 vs. WPA2
• Understand basic security enhancements of encryption and integrity in WPA3 (e.g. CCMP, GCMP, AES)
• Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) in WPA3 as an enhancement for legacy pre-shared key technology
• Understand the purpose of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) for public and guest networks

5.4 Describe common security options and tools used in wireless networks
• Access control solutions (e.g. captive portals, NAC, BYOD)
• Protected management frames
• Fast Secure Roaming methods
• Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) and/or rogue AP detection
• Protocol and spectrum analyzers
• Best practices in secure management protocols (e.g. encrypted management HTTPS, SNMPv3, SSH2, VPN and password management)

6.0 RF Validation – 10%
6.1 Verify and document that design requirements are met including coverage, throughput, roaming, and connectivity with a post-implementation validation survey
6.2 Locate and identify sources of RF interference
• Identify RF disruption from 802.11 wireless devices including contention vs. interference and causes/sources of both including co-channel contention (CCC), overlapping channels, and 802.11 wireless device proximity
• Identify sources of RF interference from non-802.11 wireless devices based on the investigation of airtime and frequency utilization
• Understand interference mitigation options including removal of interference source or change of wireless channel usage

6.3 Perform application testing to validate WLAN performance
• Network and service availability
• VoIP testing
• Real-time application testing
• Throughput testing

6.4 Understand and use the basic features of validation tools
• Use of throughput testers for validation tasks
• Use of wireless validation software (specifically survey software and wireless scanners)
• Use of protocol analyzers for validation tasks
• Use of spectrum analyzers for validation tasks

7.0 WLAN Troubleshooting – 10%
7.1 Describe and apply common troubleshooting tools used in WLANs
• Use of protocol analyzers for troubleshooting tasks
• Use of spectrum analyzers for identifying sources of interference
• Use of management, monitoring and logging systems for troubleshooting tasks
• Use of wireless LAN scanners for troubleshooting tasks

7.2 Identify and troubleshoot common wireless issues
• Identify causes of insufficient throughput in the wireless distribution systems including LAN port speed/duplex misconfigurations, insufficient PoE budget, and insufficient Internet or WAN bandwidth
• Identify and solve RF interference using spectrum analyzers
• Identify wireless performance issues using SNR, retransmissions, and airtime utilization statistics
• Identify causes of wireless issues related to network services including DHCP, DNS, and time protocols including using native interface and IP configuration tools (e.g. pings, DNS lookups, interface configuration)
• Identify wireless issues related to security configuration mismatches

QUESTION 1
What can an impedance mismatch in the RF cables and connectors cause?

A. Increased range of the RF signal
B. Fewer MCS values in the MCS table
C. Increased amplitude of the RF signal
D. Excessive VSWR

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A WLAN transmitter that emits a 50 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected
to an antenna with 9dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?

A. 26 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 23 dBm
D. 10 dBm

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?

A. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is clear of obstructions.
B. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space and is a function of frequency and distance.
C. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading.
D. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver’s low noise filter gain.

Correct Answer: C

 

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2V0-21.20 Professional VMware vSphere 7.x Exam

 

EXAM OVERVIEW
The Professional VMware vSphere 7.x (2V0-21.20) Exam validates that an individual can implement, manage, and troubleshoot a VMware vSphere® 7 infrastructure, which includes VMware ESXi™ 7 and VMware vCenter Server® 7.
Exam Details (Last Updated: 7/22/2020)

The Professional VMware vSphere 7.x Exam (2V0-21.20), which leads to the VMware Certified Professional – Data Center Virtualization 2020 certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an exam time of 130 minutes, which includes adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
A minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has 6-12 months hands-on experience implementing, managing and troubleshooting a vSphere 7 infrastructure. They are typically administrators, capable of performing deployment and administration of a virtual infrastructure using vSphere. The candidate also has working knowledge of storage, networking, hardware, security, business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in this Exam
Section 1 –Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Identify the pre-requisites and components for a vSphere implementation
Objective 1.2 – Describe vCenter Server topology
Objective 1.3 – Identify and differentiate storage access protocols for vSphere (NFS, iSCSI, SAN, etc.)
1.3.1 – Describe storage datastore types for vSphere
1.3.2 – Explain the importance of advanced storage configuration (vSphere Storage APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA), vSphere Storage APIs Array Integration (VAAI), etc.)
1.3.3 – Describe storage policies
1.3.4 – Describe basic storage concepts in K8s, vSAN and vSphere Virtual Volumes (vVols)
Objective 1.4 – Differentiate between vSphere Network I/O Control (NIOC) and vSphere Storage I/O Control (SIOC)
Objective 1.5 – Describe instant clone architecture and use cases
Objective 1.6 – Describe ESXi cluster concepts
1.6.1 – Describe Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
1.6.2 – Describe vSphere Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC)
1.6.3 – Describe how Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) scores virtual machines
1.6.4 – Describe vSphere High Availability
1.6.5 – Describe datastore clusters

Objective 1.7 – Identify vSphere distributed switch and vSphere standard switch capabilities
1.7.1 – Describe VMkernel networking
1.7.2 – Manage networking on multiple hosts with vSphere distributed switch
1.7.3 – Describe networking policies
1.7.4 – Manage Network I/O Control (NIOC) on a vSphere distributed switch
Objective 1.8 – Describe vSphere Lifecycle Manager concepts (baselines, cluster images, etc.)
Objective 1.9 – Describe the basics of vSAN as primary storage
1.9.1 – Identify basic vSAN requirements(networking, disk count + type)
Objective 1.10 – Describe the vSphere Trust Authority architecture
Objective 1.11 – Explain Software Guard Extensions (SGX)
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Describe the role of vSphere in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
Objective 2.2 – Identify use cases for vCloud Foundation
Objective 2.3 – Identify migration options
Objective 2.4 – Identify DR use cases
Objective 2.5 – Describe vSphere integration with VMware Skyline
Section 3 – Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this section.
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 – Describe single sign-on (SSO) deployment topology
4.1.1 – Configure a single sign-on (SSO) domain
4.1.2 – Join an existing single sign-on (SSO) domain
Objective 4.2 – Configure VSS advanced virtual networking options
Objective 4.3 – Set up identity sources
4.3.1 – Configure Identity Federation
4.3.2 – Configure Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) integration
4.3.3 – Configure Active Directory integration
Objective 4.4 – Deploy and configure vCenter Server Appliance
Objective 4.5 – Create and configure VMware High Availability and advanced options (Admission Control, Proactive High Availability, etc.)
Objective 4.6 – Deploy and configure vCenter Server High Availability
Objective 4.7 – Set up content library
Objective 4.8 – Configure vCenter Server file-based backup
Objective 4.9 – Analyze basic log output from vSphere products
Objective 4.10 – Configure vSphere Trust Authority
Objective 4.11 – Configure vSphere certificates
4.11.1 – Describe Enterprise PKIs role for SSL certificates
Objective 4.12 – Configure vSphere Lifecycle Manager/VMware Update Manager (VUM)
Objective 4.13 – Securely Boot ESXi hosts
Objective 4.14 – Configure different network stacks
Objective 4.15 – Configure Host Profiles
Objective 4.16 – Identify boot options
4.16.1 – Configure Quick Boot
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades
Objective 5.1 – Identify resource pools use cases
5.1.1 – Explain shares, limits and reservations (resource management)
Objective 5.2 – Monitor resources of vCenter Server Appliance and vSphere environment
Objective 5.3 – Identify and use tools for performance monitoring
Objective 5.4 – Configure Network I/O Control (NIOC)
Objective 5.5 – Configure Storage I/O Control (SIOC)
Objective 5.6 – Explain the performance impact of maintaining virtual machine snapshots
Objective 5.7 – Plan for upgrading various vSphere components
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing - There are no testable objectives for this section.
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 – Create and manage virtual machine snapshots
Objective 7.2 – Create virtual machines using different methods (Open Virtual Machine Format (OVF) templates, content library, etc.)
Objective 7.3 – Manage virtual machines
Objective 7.4 – Manage storage (datastores, storage policies, etc.)
7.4.1 – Configure and modify datastores (expand/upgrade existing datastore, etc.)
7.4.2 – Create virtual machine storage policies
7.4.3 – Configure storage cluster options
Objective 7.5 – Create Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) affinity and anti-affinity rules for common use cases
Objective 7.6 – Configure and perform different types of migrations
Objective 7.7 – Configure role-based user management
Objective 7.8 – Configure and manage the options for securing a vSphere environment (certificates, virtual machine encryption, virtual Trusted Platform Module, lock-down mode, virtualization-based security, etc.)
Objective 7.9 – Configure and manage host profiles
Objective 7.10 – Utilize baselines to perform updates and upgrades
Objective 7.11 – Utilize vSphere Lifecycle Manager
7.11.1 – Describe Firmware upgrades for ESXi
7.11.2 – Describe ESXi updates
7.11.3 – Describe component and driver updates for ESXi
7.11.4 – Describe hardware compatibility check
7.11.5 – Describe ESXi cluster image export functionality
Objective 7.12 – Configure alarms

QUESTION 1
What are two supported ESXi boot options? (Choose two.)

A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. vSAN
D. SAN
E. vSphere Virtual Volumes

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
An administrator receives an escalation to investigate a low disk space alarm on a datastore. The
administrator discovers that a snapshot has been accidentally taken on a production, write-intensive database
server. The snapshot has grown to nearly 1 TB in size in less than an hour and continues growing every second.
Which behavior should the administrator expect while deleting the snapshot? (Choose the best answer.)

A. ESXi will create a virtual RAM disk to cache ongoing database write activity; performance impact will be limited.
B. ESXi will commit the snapshot delta disk into the base disk; ongoing database write activity could result in long stun times.
C. ESXi will merge the snapshot delta disk into the base disk; the virtual machine will be briefly stunned.
D. ESXi will instantly switch from the base disk to the snapshot delta disk with no performance impact.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two storage technologies can an administrator use to deploy the Virtual Machine File System (VMFS)?
(Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel storage
B. vSAN storage
C. Virtual Volumes storage
D. NFS storage
E. iSCSI storage

Correct Answer: AE

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2V0-61.20 VMware Professional Workspace ONE Exam

 

EXAM OVERVIEW
The VCP-DW 2020 certification validates that a badge earner can install, configure, manage, maintain, and and perform basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE and related solutions, as well as properly identify and differentiate any needed supporting products and components.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The Minimally Qualified Candidate has a working knowledge of the VMware Workspace ONE platform. The MQC installs, configures, manages, maintains, and performs basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE 20.x and related solutions using publicly available documents. The MQC is knowledgeable of software, infrastructure design, and implementation. The MQC is familiar with standard operating systems across devices, productivity applications, and technologies related to Workspace ONE configuration. The MQC has a minimum of 6 months of general IT experience and typically 6 months of VMware experience installing and configuring the Workspace ONE platform. The MQC must have all the knowledge contained in the VCP-Digital Workspace exam blueprint.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

Section 1 - Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 - Differentiate and illustrate the differences between physical architecture and logical architecture
Objective 1.2 - Differentiate between cloud computing and on-prem EMM + Identity Access Management solutions
Objective 1.3 - Differentiate among OEM Providers
Objective 1.4 - Describe disaster recovery and high availability
Objective 1.5 - Describe and define Identity and Access Management Concepts
Objective 1.6 -Differentiate between traditional management and modern management (Windows 10)
Objective 1.7 - Explain authentication methods (2 factor authentication, Kerberos, Identity Bridging, SAML, SAML Transformation, Mobile SSO, etc.)

Section 2 - Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 - Identify UEM + IDM components and sub-components (Enterprise System Connector, Secure Email Gateway, ENS, etc.)
Objective 2.2 - Differentiate and match use case with VMware products based on best practices
Objective 2.3 - Identify and describe VMware Disaster Recovery, HA, Scalability (UEM, IDM, Enterprise System Connector, Secure Email Gateway, etc.)
Objective 2.4 - Explain Workspace ONE intelligence, AirWatch SDK
Section 3 - Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this section.

Section 4 - Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 - Identify infrastructure requirements (minimums, maximums, and recommended sizing requirements, OS version support, database versions, email infrastructure, directory services, etc.)
Objective 4.2 - Install and configure UEM components (ESC, ACC, IDM-C, UAG, SEG)
Objective 4.3 - Configure Edge Services (Tunnel and Content Gateway)
Objective 4.4 - Preliminary configuration of UEM environment
Objective 4.5 - Install and configure IDM components (native connectors, configure directories and IDPs)
Objective 4.6 - Configure Directory Services (users and groups)
Objective 4.7 - Configure APIs
Objective 4.8 - Configure Certificate Authority Integration
Objective 4.9 - Configure Mobile Email Management (PowerShell integration, SEG, G-Suite, Office 365, Microsoft Exchange)

Section 5 - Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades - There are no testable objectives for this section.

Section 6 - Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Match logs to use cases
Objective 6.2 - Detect networking configuration issues (DNS, NTP, etc.)
Objective 6.3 - Identify Endpoint enrollment and management issues (connectivity)
Objective 6.4 - Identify End-user App Authentication issues
Objective 6.5 - Identify console administration issues

Section 7 - Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Configure and manage device profiles for mobile and desktop endpoint OS (iOS, Android, Windows 10)
Objective 7.2 - Configure and manage certificate authority and certificate templates
Objective 7.3 - Manage Assignment Groups and Organization Groups
Objective 7.4 - Add and Manage Users and Admin groups (Basic, Directory)
Objective 7.5 - Add, assign, and manage applications
Objective 7.6 - Add, assign, and manage content
Objective 7.7 - Configure and manage email policies
Objective 7.8 - Configure and manage compliance policies for mobile and desktop endpoints
Objective 7.9 - Perform device management on device endpoints
Objective 7.10 - Add and Manage SaaS, Web Applications on VMware IDM
Objective 7.11 - Create reporting (UEM reporting, IDM reporting, Workspace ONE Intelligence)
Objective 7.12 - Manage user and Admin access on vIDM Console
Objective 7.13 - Add and manage conditional access, access policy in vIDM
Objective 7.14 - Manage authentication methods in vIDM (built-in IDP)
Objective 7.15 - Configure privacy and security controls
Objective 7.16 - Create automation (Workspace ONE Intelligence)
Objective 7.17 - Create reports and dashboards using Workspace ONE Intelligence

QUESTION 1
Which two authentication methods are available in the Workspace ONE UEM console? (Choose two.)

A. SAML
B. Azure AD
C. CAPTCHAs
D. OAUTH

E. Certificate Based Authentication

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?

A. Relay Server Integration
B. Syslog Integration
C. File Storage Integration
D. Certificate Authority Integration

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to use VMware Unified Access Gateway (UAG) appliance to enable devices to connect
to internal resources without needing the Workspace ONE UEM SDK.
Which method can the administrator use to deploy the UAG appliance?

A. Manual install to a Linux Server
B. PowerShell install to a Windows Server
C. Manual install to a Windows Server
D. PowerShell install to vSphere

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An organization has purchased a SaaS Workspace ONE solution and wants to implement these:
integration with back-end resources like Active Directory from Microsoft to sync users and groups Kerberos authentication
integration with Virtual Desktops and Applications from services (Horizon 7, Horizon Cloud, or Citrix)
third party integration with RSA SecureID, RADIUS for authentication
Which Workspace ONE component is required?

A. VMware AirWatch Cloud Connector
B. VMware Workspace ONE Assist
C. VMware Workspace Unified Access Gateway
D. VMware Workspace ONE Access Connector

Correct Answer: D

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76940X Avaya Converged Platform Solution Support Exam

The Avaya Converged Platform Support Exam (76940X) is a requirement to earn the Avaya Solutions Platform (ACSS – 7694) credential. This exam has 56 questions and the minimum passing score is 64%. The candidate has 105 minutes to complete this exam.

Test Objectives
The exam covers the following knowledge areas and learning objectives:

Architecture
Describe the Components that make up the ASP 4200 product.
Identify the differences between a Co-delivery and a Full Avaya Support installation.

Methodology and Support Tools
Explain how to use the Avaya support ticketing tool.
Use the appropriate logs, tools, and files to collect a package of information that will help in troubleshooting.
Describe the next level interfaces used on the OEM components (PDI, Servers, VMware, EMC, etc.) for troubleshooting.

Maintenance
Download and apply Server and Storage updates.
Download and apply PDU and Switch updates.
Download and upgrade VMware vCenter and ESXi platforms.
Identify the correct procedures used in preventative maintenance.
Perform backup and restore of solutions and applications related to ASP 4200.

Troubleshooting
Describe general troubleshooting tasks.
Describe Quick Fix tasks.
Identify unsupported configurations in VMware.
Describe how to use PSN and KT documents during troubleshooting tasks.

Prerequisite Knowledge
Review the credential learning map for any prerequisite information.

QUESTION 1
A support engineer is tasked with working on an ACP 4200 4.0 system.
Which three pieces of equipment would the engineer expect to find in the rack that will differentiate the system from an earlier release of PodFx 3.X or CPOD 2.X? (Choose three.)

A. Dell R601 Servers
B. VSP 4824
C. HP Nimble Storage CS1000
D. HP Proliant DL360 G10 Servers
E. VSP 7254

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which equipment is standard in a new ACP 4200 4.0?

A. IP 7254
B. VSP 4850
C. IP 8284
D. VSP 7024

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which benefit does the available G450 Gateway provide to the ACP 4200 solution?

A. IP to H.323 translation
B. SIP to IP transition
C. IP to POTS transition
D. SIP to SIP negotiation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A support engineer is assigned to provide maintenance services for an ACP 4200 4.0 system.
Which type of organization could the engineer expect to be assigned to?

A. Small Business services
B. Service Providers
C. Large Enterprises
D. Large Enterprises & Service Providers

Correct Answer: C
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JN0-334 Security, Specialist JNCIS-SEC Exam

Exam Details
JNCIS-SEC exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses, as well as the additional resources.

Exam code: JN0-334
Written exam
Administered by Pearson VUE
Exam length: 90 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Pass/fail status is available immediately
Junos Software Release: 19.1

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of security policies
ALGs
Logging
Session management
Scheduling

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot security policies

Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate’s motivation, experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed on this page helpful as well.

Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam.

Identify application security concepts
Application Firewall
Application QoS
Applicate ID
APBR

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot application security
Identify application IDP/IDS concepts
IPS database management
IPS policy

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot IDP/IDS
Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of security policies
ALGs
Logging
Session management
Scheduling

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot security policies
Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of Sky ATP
Supported files
Components
Security feeds
Traffic remediation
Workflow

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Sky ATP
Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of JATP
Cyber kill chain
Application
Traffic remediation

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot JATP
Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of HA
HA features and characteristics
Deployment requirements and considerations
Chassis cluster characteristics and operation
Real-time objects and state synchronization

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot clustering
Describe concepts, general features, or functionality of virtualized security using vSRX or cSRX
Installation
Deployment scenarios
Troubleshooting

Identify concepts, general features, or functionality of JIMS
Ports and protocols
Data flow

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot JIMS
Identify concepts, general features, or functionality of SSL Proxy
Certificates
Client and server protection

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot SSL proxy
Identify concepts, general features, or functionality of JSA
Logging
Analytics

QUESTION 1
What are two examples of RTOs? (Choose two.)

A. IPsec SA entries
B. session table entries
C. fabric link probes
D. control link heartbeats

Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Which three features are parts of Juniper Networks’ AppSecure suite? (Choose three.)

A. AppQoE
B. APBR
C. Secure Application Manager
D. AppQoS
E. AppFormix

Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about server-protection SSP proxy? (Choose two.)

A. The server-protection SSL proxy intercepts the server certificate.
B. The server-protection SSL proxy is also known as SSL reverse proxy.
C. The server-protection SSL proxy forwards the server certificate after modification.
D. The server-protection SSL proxy acts as the server from the client’s perspective.

Correct Answer: B,D
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C1000-060 IBM Watson IoT Asset Performance Management Solution Architect V1

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 7 sections described below.

Section 1: Basic Architecture
Register an Asset in Maximo
Review Asset Performance Management Workflows
Describe the deployment options (SaaS,hybrid on-prem)

Section 2: Watson Internet of Things Platform
Register a Device Type and devices
Setting up Device Security Policy
Connect a device to the Platform
Managing device events to Watson IoT Platform
Define Physical and Logical Interfaces
Verifying data in the data lake

Section 3: Asset Health Insights
Describe the approach for configuring the Reliability Engineering Work Center in Asset Health Insights
Create or use existing Scoring Factors and Meters
Create Asset Health scoring system
Configure Asset Health drivers
Describe the role of Failure Reporting in Asset Health Insights
Describe the process for configuration of IoT Connection Service and Asset Device Mapping in Asset Health Insights

Section 4: Predictive Maintenance Insights
Describe how to obtain Predictive Maintenance Insights credentials
Download out of the box model templates and import to Watson Studio
Configure notebooks to point to users Predictive Maintenance Insights environment
Run notebook to train the model
Setup schedule for Predictive Maintenance Insights model scoring
View Predictive Maintenance Insights predictions

Section 5: Equipment Maintenance Assistant
Describe Equipment Maintenance Assistant Content Curation Process
Explain Equipment Maintenance Assistant (Watson Discovery) Relevancy Training
Review and Refine Equipment Maintenance Assistant Results

Section 6: Initial Setup
Describe the data consumed by Asset Health Insights
Set up MAHI and Maximo to point to Predictive Maintenance Insights tenant
Obtain Watson Studio and Machine Learning environments

Section 7: Customization and Configuration
Describe the 5 out of the box templates
Customize Preventive Maintenance Insights model
Describe the role of custom algorithms

The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam. This should not be considered an assessment tool.

Sample Test for Test C1000-060

Use the study guide to help pass this exam. A study guide is an easy to follow document that will help you prepare for this exam. The guide is free and can be downloaded immediately.

Study Guide PDF here

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A1000-060 Assessment: IBM Watson IoT Asset Performance Management Solution Architect V1

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.

This assessment exam is available in: English
Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.
You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

Web Based Training
IBM Maxiomo Asset Performance Management On-Premises

Welcome to the home page of the IBM® Maximo® Asset Performance Management (APM) On-premises documentation

Web Resource
Configuring the Reliability Engineering Work Center

After you install Maximo® APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises, you can give users access to the Work Center and configure maps, weather data, and notifications. You can also add cards or reset cards to view KPIs and queries. When you log into the Reliability Engineering Work Center for the first time, the Getting Started card guides you through the configuration of the product.

Product Overview
IBM® Maximo® APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS focuses on the needs of reliability engineers to identify and manage asset reliability risks that might adversely affect plant or business operations.

Welcome to the IBM® Maximo® APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises documentation

Welcome to the IBM® Maximo® APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises documentation, where you can find information about how to install, maintain, and use Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises and maintain and use IBM Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights SaaS. For Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights SaaS documentation, review the product documentation for the latest version of Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises.

IBM Maximo APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS

Maximo® APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS documentation, where you can find information about how to maintain and use the Maximo APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS product.

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CIS-HR Certified Implementation Specialist-Human Resources Exam

Certified Implementation Certified Implementation Certified Implementation Certified Implementation

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – HR Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation Specialist – HR certified.

Exam Purpose
The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow Human Resources suite of applications.

Exam Audience
The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Certified Implementer for the ServiceNow HR application.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path: Human Resources Service Delivery (HRSD) Implementer
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• Human Resources (HR) Fundamentals
• Human Resources (HR) Implementation - Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a nontransferable voucher code to register for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow also recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.

ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
o Micro-certification – ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
• Working with Restricted Caller Access Records for Human Resources

Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• General familiarity with general industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
• Practical knowledge about Human Resources processes and some knowledge of IT Service Request workflows is also helpful
• Three to six months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least one ServiceNow HR deployment project
Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content.
Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Describe and use the ServiceNow HR System Architecture 37%
Plugins
HR Table Structure
Application Scoping
2 Configure and Implement ServiceNow Core HR Applications and Employee Service Center 40%
Users, Groups, Skills, and Roles
Assignment Rules
HR Services, HR Catalog Items, and Record Producers
HR Service Portal Branding

Describe and Use Platform, Role, and Contextual Security
16% Describe how Platform, Role, and Contextual Security are Used in ServiceNow
Understand how the Delegated Developer role works
Understand how to Configure Security Options to Protect HR Data
Total
100%
Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Human Resources (HR) Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.

NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately 45 questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times for a cost of $75.

QUESTION 1
An HR Admin without the System Admin role can do what? (Choose three.)

A. Grant roles to users or groups
B. Modify the HR Administration > Properties
C. Reset user passwords
D. Create HR Criteria
E. Configure business rules
F. Add users to groups

Correct Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION 2
After the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role has been removed from the Admin role, how may a user with only the Admin role add members to HR groups?

A. The Admin must elevate their role to security_admin to add members to HR groups.
B. The Admin follows the same process as with any group membership change.
C. The Admin can no longer add members to HR groups.
D. The Admin must impersonate an HR Admin to add members to HR groups.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
In the Create Bulk Cases module, which Filter by options are available in the dropdown? (Choose four.)

A. Document Template
B. Upload File
C. HR Service Template
D. User Criteria
E. HR Template
F. HR Profiles
G. HR Criteria

Correct Answer: B,D,F,G


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MB-901 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Exam

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and cloud deployment.

This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.

Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Audience Profile
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365

Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security
• encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)

Understand the benefits of role based security
• app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles

Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud
• Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)

Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365
• Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service

Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service
• analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency

Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities
• built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting

Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights

Leverage mixed reality
• remote assist
• guides
• layouts

Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales
• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing
• lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service
• Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service
• account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles

Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance
• General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources
• employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central
• finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
• project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce
• retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce

QUESTION 1
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?

A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts

Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 3
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A
 

Click here to view complete Q&A of MB-901 exam
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